A nurse is reviewing a client's 0800 laboratory values at 1100. The nurse notes that the client received heparin at 1000. Which of the following laboratory values warrants an incident report?
INR 1.6
WBC 6,000/mm3
Hgb 16 g/dL
aPTT 90 seconds
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
An INR of 1.6 is slightly elevated but does not necessarily warrant an incident report.
Choice B rationale:
A WBC count of 6,000/mm3 is within a normal range and would not warrant an incident report.
Choice C rationale:
A hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL is within a normal range and does not warrant an incident report.
Choice D rationale:
An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly prolonged and may indicate excessive anticoagulation from the heparin administration. This could potentially be a safety concern and would warrant an incident report for further evaluation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Red man syndrome is typically associated with the rapid infusion of vancomycin, not phenytoin.
Choice B rationale:
Hypotension can be an adverse effect of phenytoin administration, especially if the medication is administered rapidly.
Choice C rationale:
Hypoglycemia is not commonly associated with phenytoin use.
Choice D rationale:
Bradycardia is not commonly associated with phenytoin use.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
- A) Alcohol use disorder is a contraindication for acetaminophen due to the increased risk of liver damage, especially in the case of chronic alcoholism or liver diseases.
- B) Chronic kidney disease is not an absolute contraindication but requires caution. Dosing intervals may need to be adjusted due to altered excretion.
- C) Receiving a Hepatitis B vaccine within the last week is not a contraindication for acetaminophen.
- D) Diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication for acetaminophen. Patients with diabetes should be aware of sugar content in liquid formulations, but it does not preclude the use of the medication.
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