A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a male client about a semen analysis to be done for suspected infertility.
Which of the following information should the nurse include?
The specimen should be refrigerated after collection.
You should abstain from ejaculation for at least 2 to 3 days prior to the test.
The specimen should remain at room temperature for 3 to 4 hours prior to transport to the laboratory.
You will collect the specimen using a condom with spermicide. Sure, I understand your instructions.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Refrigerating the specimen after collection is not recommended for semen analysis. Cold temperatures can damage sperm motility and viability, leading to inaccurate results. The specimen should be kept at room temperature and transported to the laboratory within 1 hour of collection. This ensures that the sperm are analyzed under conditions that closely resemble their natural environment within the body, providing the most accurate assessment of their health and function.
Choice C rationale:
Allowing the specimen to remain at room temperature for 3 to 4 hours prior to transport is also not advised. While sperm can survive for a limited time outside the body, prolonged exposure to room temperature can also negatively impact their motility and viability. This can compromise the accuracy of the semen analysis results.
Choice D rationale:
Collecting the specimen using a condom with spermicide is strictly prohibited for semen analysis. Spermicides are designed to kill sperm, and their presence in the sample would render the analysis entirely invalid. It's crucial to collect the specimen directly into a sterile container provided by the laboratory to ensure no contaminants interfere with the analysis.
Choice B rationale:
Abstaining from ejaculation for 2 to 3 days prior to the semen analysis is essential for obtaining accurate results. This timeframe allows for optimal sperm concentration and quality within the ejaculate. Frequent ejaculation can deplete sperm reserves, potentially leading to lower sperm counts and reduced motility in the sample. By adhering to the recommended abstinence period, the chances of obtaining a representative and accurate assessment of the patient's semen quality are significantly increased.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale for Choice A:
It is accurate that scheduling the NST when the baby is usually active is beneficial. This is because fetal movement is expected to cause accelerations in the fetal heart rate, which is a positive sign of fetal well-being.
By scheduling the test during a time of typical fetal activity, the chances of obtaining a reactive NST (a normal result) are increased.
Therefore, this statement does not indicate a need for further teaching.
Rationale for Choice B:
Lying on the back during the NST is not recommended.
This position can cause the weight of the uterus to compress the major blood vessels (the inferior vena cava and aorta), potentially reducing blood flow to the placenta and fetus.
Reduced blood flow can, in turn, lead to a decrease in fetal heart rate and movement.
To avoid this, the recommended position for NST is a semi-Fowler's position, which involves being partially reclined with the head and upper body elevated.
This position helps to promote uterine perfusion and prevent supine hypotension.
Rationale for Choice C:
It is accurate that the baby's heart rate will be monitored during the NST.
This is the primary purpose of the test: to assess the fetal heart rate response to fetal movement. Therefore, this statement does not indicate a need for further teaching.
Rationale for Choice D:
It is accurate that the client will be able to go to the bathroom during the NST if necessary. The test is noninvasive and does not require strict immobility.
The client can move around and use the bathroom as needed, as long as the fetal heart rate monitor is not disconnected.
Therefore, this statement does not indicate a need for further teaching.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Quickening is the term used to describe the first noticeable fetal movements felt by the pregnant person. It is often described as a fluttering or bubbling sensation in the lower abdomen.
Quickening typically occurs between 16 and 22 weeks of gestation, with an average of 18 weeks. It is a normal and reassuring sign that the pregnancy is progressing well.
The sensation of quickening is caused by the fetus moving its arms and legs, as well as by its body turning and rotating within the amniotic fluid.
It is important to note that not all pregnant women experience quickening at the same time, and some women may not feel it at all.
However, in this case, the client is at 16 weeks of gestation, which is within the typical timeframe for quickening to occur. Moreover, the client's description of "light fluttering in her stomach" is consistent with the sensation of quickening.
Choice B rationale:
Lightening is the term used to describe the descent of the fetus into the pelvis in preparation for labor.
It typically occurs in the last few weeks of pregnancy, and is often accompanied by a feeling of increased pressure in the pelvis and bladder.
The client in this question is only at 16 weeks of gestation, so it is too early for lightening to have occurred.
Choice C rationale:
Braxton Hicks contractions are irregular, painless contractions of the uterus that can occur throughout pregnancy.
They are often described as a tightening or hardening of the uterus, and they may come and go over a period of several hours. Braxton Hicks contractions are not a sign of labor, but they can sometimes be mistaken for it.
The client in this question did not describe any contractions, so Braxton Hicks contractions are not a likely explanation for her symptoms.
Choice D rationale:
Chloasma is a skin condition that is characterized by brown patches on the face.
It is also known as the "mask of pregnancy" because it is more common in pregnant women. Chloasma is caused by hormonal changes during pregnancy, and it typically fades after delivery.
The client in this question did not describe any skin changes, so chloasma is not a likely explanation for her symptoms
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