A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is using a diaphragm to prevent pregnancy. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
"You should replace your diaphragm every 2 year”
"You should be refitted for your diaphragm if you have a 10 percent weight fluctuation."
"You should insert the diaphragm when your bladder is full."
"You should remove your diaphragm 4 hours after intercourse."
The Correct Answer is B
Rationale:
A. "You should replace your diaphragm every 2 years": Diaphragms generally need to be replaced every 1 to 2 years, depending on the manufacturer’s guidelines and wear and tear. However, it is more important to be aware of refitting needs related to physiological changes.
B. "You should be refitted for your diaphragm if you have a 10 percent weight fluctuation.": Significant weight changes, usually around 10 to 15 percent, can alter pelvic anatomy and affect diaphragm fit, increasing the risk of contraceptive failure. Therefore, refitting is recommended after notable weight fluctuations.
C. "You should insert the diaphragm when your bladder is full.": The bladder should be empty when inserting the diaphragm to avoid discomfort and ensure proper placement over the cervix. A full bladder can cause displacement and increase the risk of failure.
D. "You should remove your diaphragm 4 hours after intercourse.": The diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure adequate sperm immobilization and contraceptive effectiveness. Removing it too early may increase the risk of pregnancy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]
Explanation
Rationale:
• Heart rate of 110/min indicates tachycardia, which can be an early sign of hypovolemia, sepsis, or pain and should be followed up due to the recent report of a "popping" sound and increased drainage.
• Abdominal dressing now has a large amount of serosanguinous drainage, suggesting possible wound dehiscence or evisceration, which is a surgical emergency requiring prompt evaluation.
• Blood pressure of 98/50 mm Hg indicates hypotension, which, along with tachycardia and fever, suggests potential sepsis or internal fluid loss and needs immediate intervention.
• Pedal pulses are 2+, which is within normal limits and unchanged from Day 1, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion at present.
• Oxygen saturation at 95% on room air is within normal limits and not significantly changed from previous levels, requiring no urgent action.
• Breath sounds are still clear and present bilaterally, indicating no respiratory compromise or pulmonary complication at this time.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Recommend the client spend time alone in his room: Isolation can worsen depressive symptoms by reducing social interaction and support. Clients with major depressive disorder benefit more from structured, supportive environments that encourage engagement.
B. Encourage the client to use positive self-talk: Promoting positive self-talk helps challenge negative thought patterns common in depression. This cognitive-behavioral strategy can improve mood, self-esteem, and overall coping ability.
C. Offer the client low-protein snacks throughout the day: Nutritional support is important, but there is no specific reason to offer low-protein snacks for depression. A balanced diet with adequate protein may better support brain function and mood regulation.
D. Suggest the client exercise before going to bed: Regular exercise is beneficial for managing depression, but exercising before bedtime can disrupt sleep patterns. Physical activity is better scheduled earlier in the day to promote restfulness at night.
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