A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is 15 weeks pregnant about to undergo amniocentesis. This test can identify which traits or problems? Select all that apply.
Rh incompatibility.
Neural tube defects.
Fetal gender.
Cephalopelvic disproportion.
Chromosomal defects.
Correct Answer : B,C,E
Choice A:
Rh incompatibility is not directly identified through amniocentesis. Instead, it's typically assessed through blood tests that determine a woman's Rh factor and screen for Rh antibodies.
However, amniocentesis can provide information that might be relevant to Rh incompatibility, such as the fetal Rh type. If the mother is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive, there's a risk of Rh incompatibility.
Choice B:
Amniocentesis can detect neural tube defects (NTDs) like spina bifida and anencephaly.
It does this by measuring the levels of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid. AFP is a protein produced by the fetal liver, and elevated levels in the amniotic fluid can indicate an NTD.
Choice C:
Amniocentesis can accurately determine the fetal gender by examining the sex chromosomes present in the cells of the amniotic fluid.
Choice D:
Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) is a condition where the baby's head is too large to fit through the mother's pelvis. It's not diagnosed through amniocentesis.
CPD is usually suspected based on clinical findings like a slow progression of labor or a high fetal station, and it might be confirmed with imaging techniques like X-ray or ultrasound.
Choice E:
Amniocentesis is a valuable tool for diagnosing chromosomal defects, such as Down syndrome, Trisomy 18, and Trisomy 13. It does this by analyzing the chromosomes of the fetal cells present in the amniotic fluid.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Premature maturity is not a plausible cause of bleeding without contractions at 1 week of pregnancy. Premature maturity, or preterm labor, refers to labor that begins before 37 weeks of gestation. It is characterized by contractions and cervical changes, often accompanied by other symptoms such as lower back pain, pelvic pressure, or a change in vaginal discharge. At 1 week of pregnancy, the fetus is still in the very early stages of development, and premature labor is not possible.
Choice C rationale:
The location of the placenta can sometimes cause bleeding in pregnancy, but it is typically associated with later stages of gestation, such as the second or third trimester. Placental conditions like placenta previa, where the placenta lies low in the uterus and partially or completely covers the cervix, can lead to bleeding, but this is unlikely to occur at 1 week of pregnancy. Moreover, placenta previa is usually accompanied by pain or cramping, which is not present in the client's case.
Choice D rationale:
The frequency and duration of contractions are relevant in assessing labor progression, but they are not a primary cause of bleeding without contractions. Contractions are the rhythmic tightening and relaxing of the uterine muscles that help to dilate the cervix and move the baby through the birth canal. Bleeding without contractions at 1 week of pregnancy suggests a different underlying issue.
Choice B rationale:
Incompetency, also known as cervical insufficiency or cervical incompetence, is the most likely cause of bleeding without contractions at 1 week of pregnancy. It occurs when the cervix is weak and begins to open prematurely, even without the presence of contractions. This can lead to bleeding and potential miscarriage or preterm birth. The fact that the client can feel the baby moving does not rule out cervical insufficiency, as fetal movement can sometimes be felt as early as 13-16 weeks of pregnancy.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale for Choice A: Whitish vaginal discharge
While whitish vaginal discharge can occur in some cases of hydatidiform mole, it's not a specific or sensitive finding for this condition.
It can also be present in various other gynecological conditions, including normal pregnancy, infections, and hormonal imbalances.
Therefore, relying on whitish vaginal discharge alone for monitoring a potential hydatidiform mole could lead to misdiagnosis or delayed diagnosis.
Rationale for Choice B: Excessive uterine enlargement
Excessive uterine enlargement is a common sign of hydatidiform mole, but it's not always present and might not be detected early in the condition.
The uterus might not be significantly enlarged in early stages, and other factors like multiple pregnancies or uterine fibroids could also contribute to uterine enlargement.
Solely relying on uterine enlargement could miss cases of hydatidiform mole that haven't progressed to a noticeable degree.
Rationale for Choice C: Fetal heart rate irregularities
Fetal heart rate irregularities are not relevant in hydatidiform mole because there is no viable fetus present. Hydatidiform moles are characterized by abnormal growth of placental tissue without a normal fetus developing. Monitoring for fetal heart rate would be inappropriate and misleading in this context.
Rationale for Choice D: Rapidly changing hCG levels
This is the most accurate and reliable finding to monitor for in a suspected hydatidiform mole.
hCG is a hormone produced by the placenta, and it's typically elevated in pregnancy. However, in hydatidiform mole, hCG levels are often abnormally high and rise rapidly.
Serial hCG measurements can accurately detect and track the progression of a hydatidiform mole, even in its early stages. It's considered the gold standard for diagnosis and monitoring of this condition.
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