The nurse is caring for a client who might have a hydatidiform mole. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings? Choice Options:
Whitish vaginal discharge.
Excessive uterine enlargement.
Fetal heart rate irregularities.
Rapidly changing human chorionic gonadotropin levels.
The Correct Answer is D
Rationale for Choice A: Whitish vaginal discharge
While whitish vaginal discharge can occur in some cases of hydatidiform mole, it's not a specific or sensitive finding for this condition.
It can also be present in various other gynecological conditions, including normal pregnancy, infections, and hormonal imbalances.
Therefore, relying on whitish vaginal discharge alone for monitoring a potential hydatidiform mole could lead to misdiagnosis or delayed diagnosis.
Rationale for Choice B: Excessive uterine enlargement
Excessive uterine enlargement is a common sign of hydatidiform mole, but it's not always present and might not be detected early in the condition.
The uterus might not be significantly enlarged in early stages, and other factors like multiple pregnancies or uterine fibroids could also contribute to uterine enlargement.
Solely relying on uterine enlargement could miss cases of hydatidiform mole that haven't progressed to a noticeable degree.
Rationale for Choice C: Fetal heart rate irregularities
Fetal heart rate irregularities are not relevant in hydatidiform mole because there is no viable fetus present. Hydatidiform moles are characterized by abnormal growth of placental tissue without a normal fetus developing. Monitoring for fetal heart rate would be inappropriate and misleading in this context.
Rationale for Choice D: Rapidly changing hCG levels
This is the most accurate and reliable finding to monitor for in a suspected hydatidiform mole.
hCG is a hormone produced by the placenta, and it's typically elevated in pregnancy. However, in hydatidiform mole, hCG levels are often abnormally high and rise rapidly.
Serial hCG measurements can accurately detect and track the progression of a hydatidiform mole, even in its early stages. It's considered the gold standard for diagnosis and monitoring of this condition.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Premature maturity is not a plausible cause of bleeding without contractions at 1 week of pregnancy. Premature maturity, or preterm labor, refers to labor that begins before 37 weeks of gestation. It is characterized by contractions and cervical changes, often accompanied by other symptoms such as lower back pain, pelvic pressure, or a change in vaginal discharge. At 1 week of pregnancy, the fetus is still in the very early stages of development, and premature labor is not possible.
Choice C rationale:
The location of the placenta can sometimes cause bleeding in pregnancy, but it is typically associated with later stages of gestation, such as the second or third trimester. Placental conditions like placenta previa, where the placenta lies low in the uterus and partially or completely covers the cervix, can lead to bleeding, but this is unlikely to occur at 1 week of pregnancy. Moreover, placenta previa is usually accompanied by pain or cramping, which is not present in the client's case.
Choice D rationale:
The frequency and duration of contractions are relevant in assessing labor progression, but they are not a primary cause of bleeding without contractions. Contractions are the rhythmic tightening and relaxing of the uterine muscles that help to dilate the cervix and move the baby through the birth canal. Bleeding without contractions at 1 week of pregnancy suggests a different underlying issue.
Choice B rationale:
Incompetency, also known as cervical insufficiency or cervical incompetence, is the most likely cause of bleeding without contractions at 1 week of pregnancy. It occurs when the cervix is weak and begins to open prematurely, even without the presence of contractions. This can lead to bleeding and potential miscarriage or preterm birth. The fact that the client can feel the baby moving does not rule out cervical insufficiency, as fetal movement can sometimes be felt as early as 13-16 weeks of pregnancy.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Quickening is the term used to describe the first noticeable fetal movements felt by the pregnant person. It is often described as a fluttering or bubbling sensation in the lower abdomen.
Quickening typically occurs between 16 and 22 weeks of gestation, with an average of 18 weeks. It is a normal and reassuring sign that the pregnancy is progressing well.
The sensation of quickening is caused by the fetus moving its arms and legs, as well as by its body turning and rotating within the amniotic fluid.
It is important to note that not all pregnant women experience quickening at the same time, and some women may not feel it at all.
However, in this case, the client is at 16 weeks of gestation, which is within the typical timeframe for quickening to occur. Moreover, the client's description of "light fluttering in her stomach" is consistent with the sensation of quickening.
Choice B rationale:
Lightening is the term used to describe the descent of the fetus into the pelvis in preparation for labor.
It typically occurs in the last few weeks of pregnancy, and is often accompanied by a feeling of increased pressure in the pelvis and bladder.
The client in this question is only at 16 weeks of gestation, so it is too early for lightening to have occurred.
Choice C rationale:
Braxton Hicks contractions are irregular, painless contractions of the uterus that can occur throughout pregnancy.
They are often described as a tightening or hardening of the uterus, and they may come and go over a period of several hours. Braxton Hicks contractions are not a sign of labor, but they can sometimes be mistaken for it.
The client in this question did not describe any contractions, so Braxton Hicks contractions are not a likely explanation for her symptoms.
Choice D rationale:
Chloasma is a skin condition that is characterized by brown patches on the face.
It is also known as the "mask of pregnancy" because it is more common in pregnant women. Chloasma is caused by hormonal changes during pregnancy, and it typically fades after delivery.
The client in this question did not describe any skin changes, so chloasma is not a likely explanation for her symptoms
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