A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client has a new diagnosis of aplastic anemia. When discussing the pathology of this disease, which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

"Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs."

"Aplastic anemia is directly related to impaired liver function."

"Aplastic anemia is associated with the decreased intake of iron."

"Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. "Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs." Aplastic anemia is characterized by the failure of bone marrow to produce adequate red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells, and platelets. This results in pancytopenia, which increases the risk of infections, anemia, and bleeding.

B. "Aplastic anemia is directly related to impaired liver function." Aplastic anemia is not related to liver function; it originates from the bone marrow’s inability to produce sufficient blood cells.

C. "Aplastic anemia is associated with the decreased intake of iron." Aplastic anemia is not caused by iron deficiency; it is primarily due to bone marrow failure. Iron deficiency anemia, on the other hand, results from a lack of iron intake or absorption.

D. "Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction." Increased RBC destruction is characteristic of hemolytic anemia, not aplastic anemia.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Activity intolerance related to tissue hypoxia: Pernicious anemia leads to a decrease in the body’s ability to carry oxygen due to a lack of intrinsic factor and subsequent vitamin B12 deficiency, resulting in tissue hypoxia. This can cause fatigue and activity intolerance as the body struggles to meet its oxygen demands.

B. Ineffective airway clearance related to dyspnea: Dyspnea may occur, but ineffective airway clearance is not directly related to pernicious anemia, as this condition primarily affects oxygen transport, not the airway.

C. Risk for infection related to reduction in white blood cells (WBCs): Pernicious anemia primarily affects red blood cells due to vitamin B12 deficiency; it does not typically lead to a reduction in white blood cells.

D. Chronic pain related to bone marrow dysfunction: While bone marrow may be affected in some anemias, chronic pain is not a typical symptom of pernicious anemia, and bone marrow dysfunction is not usually present.

A. The spleen is the primary site for platelet destruction. B. The spleen is at risk for infection due to the critical loss of WBCs. C. Your spleen is making too many platelets. D. The spleen causes an overabundance of immature platelets.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The spleen is the primary site for platelet destruction. In ITP, the spleen often sequesters and destroys platelets, leading to low platelet levels. Removing the spleen reduces platelet destruction and can help increase platelet counts in affected patients.

B. The spleen is at risk for infection due to the critical loss of WBCs. While infection risk increases after splenectomy, this is not the rationale for the procedure. The spleen does play a role in immune function, but splenectomy is indicated for reducing platelet destruction, not infection prevention.

C. Your spleen is making too many platelets. The spleen does not produce platelets; rather, it filters and sometimes destroys them, particularly in ITP. This choice does not accurately reflect the pathophysiology of ITP.

D. The spleen causes an overabundance of immature platelets. The spleen does not cause an increase in immature platelets. In ITP, platelets are destroyed, not overproduced.

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A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client has a new diagnosis of aplastic anemia. When discussing the pathology of this disease, which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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