A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client has a new diagnosis of aplastic anemia. When discussing the pathology of this disease, which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

"Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs."

"Aplastic anemia is directly related to impaired liver function."

"Aplastic anemia is associated with the decreased intake of iron."

"Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. "Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs." Aplastic anemia is characterized by the failure of bone marrow to produce adequate red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells, and platelets. This results in pancytopenia, which increases the risk of infections, anemia, and bleeding.

B. "Aplastic anemia is directly related to impaired liver function." Aplastic anemia is not related to liver function; it originates from the bone marrow’s inability to produce sufficient blood cells.

C. "Aplastic anemia is associated with the decreased intake of iron." Aplastic anemia is not caused by iron deficiency; it is primarily due to bone marrow failure. Iron deficiency anemia, on the other hand, results from a lack of iron intake or absorption.

D. "Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction." Increased RBC destruction is characteristic of hemolytic anemia, not aplastic anemia.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Red blood cells (RBCs) 5.0 million/mm³ (F 4.2–5.4; M 4.7–6.1): This RBC count is within normal limits and does not indicate a concern related to thrombocytopenia.

B. Hemoglobin 14.5 g/100 mL (F 12–16; M 14–18): Hemoglobin is within normal limits and is not an immediate concern for a patient with ITP, as thrombocytopenia primarily affects platelets, not hemoglobin levels.

C. Platelets 50,000/mm³ (150,000–400,000): A platelet count of 50,000/mm³ is significantly below the normal range and poses a risk for bleeding, which is the primary concern in ITP (immune thrombocytopenic purpura).

D. White blood cells (WBCs) 7,400/mm³ (5,000–10,000): The WBC count is normal and not directly related to thrombocytopenia in ITP, which specifically affects platelets.

A. Have the patient take a number and stay in the waiting area. B. Place the patient in an examination room immediately and notify the physician of a potential bleeding crisis. C. Send the patient for routine x-rays to locate the source of bleeding and place him in an examination room. D. Palpate the suspected area of bleeding for tenderness and edema.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Have the patient take a number and stay in the waiting area. Delaying care could lead to worsening of a potentially life-threatening bleeding episode. Hemophilia patients should be assessed promptly.

B. Place the patient in an examination room immediately and notify the physician of a potential bleeding crisis. Hemophilia patients are at risk of internal bleeding, which may not always be visible externally. Rapid assessment is essential to prevent complications from internal bleeding.

C. Send the patient for routine x-rays to locate the source of bleeding and place him in an examination room. X-rays may not immediately detect bleeding in soft tissues. The physician should evaluate the patient first.

D. Palpate the suspected area of bleeding for tenderness and edema. Palpating could worsen bleeding or cause pain, and the nurse should focus on ensuring the patient is seen promptly by the physician.

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A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client has a new diagnosis of aplastic anemia. When discussing the pathology of this disease, which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is reviewing laboratory values for a patient with thrombocytopenia associated with ITP. Which result would concern the nurse the most?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse is triaging several patients in an urgent care center. One patient states that he has hemophilia and is bleeding, with no apparent signs of bleeding. Which priority action by the nurse is most appropriate at this time?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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