A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client has a new diagnosis of aplastic anemia. When discussing the pathology of this disease, which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
"Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs."
"Aplastic anemia is directly related to impaired liver function."
"Aplastic anemia is associated with the decreased intake of iron."
"Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction."
The Correct Answer is A
A. "Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs." Aplastic anemia is characterized by the failure of bone marrow to produce adequate red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells, and platelets. This results in pancytopenia, which increases the risk of infections, anemia, and bleeding.
B. "Aplastic anemia is directly related to impaired liver function." Aplastic anemia is not related to liver function; it originates from the bone marrow’s inability to produce sufficient blood cells.
C. "Aplastic anemia is associated with the decreased intake of iron." Aplastic anemia is not caused by iron deficiency; it is primarily due to bone marrow failure. Iron deficiency anemia, on the other hand, results from a lack of iron intake or absorption.
D. "Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction." Increased RBC destruction is characteristic of hemolytic anemia, not aplastic anemia.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Jaw Pain: Jaw pain is not typically associated with a hemolytic transfusion reaction. It may be more relevant in cardiac issues or in rare cases of referred pain, but it is not an indicator of transfusion reaction.
B. Urticaria: Urticaria (hives) is associated with allergic reactions, not specifically with hemolytic reactions. Acute hemolytic reactions are characterized more by systemic symptoms like hypotension and fever.
C. Distended neck veins: Distended neck veins suggest fluid overload or cardiac issues but are not characteristic of an acute hemolytic reaction.
D. Hypotension: Hypotension is a common sign of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. This occurs when the immune system attacks transfused red blood cells, leading to hemolysis, which can cause shock and a drop-in blood pressure.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The spleen is the primary site for platelet destruction. In ITP, the spleen often sequesters and destroys platelets, leading to low platelet levels. Removing the spleen reduces platelet destruction and can help increase platelet counts in affected patients.
B. The spleen is at risk for infection due to the critical loss of WBCs. While infection risk increases after splenectomy, this is not the rationale for the procedure. The spleen does play a role in immune function, but splenectomy is indicated for reducing platelet destruction, not infection prevention.
C. Your spleen is making too many platelets. The spleen does not produce platelets; rather, it filters and sometimes destroys them, particularly in ITP. This choice does not accurately reflect the pathophysiology of ITP.
D. The spleen causes an overabundance of immature platelets. The spleen does not cause an increase in immature platelets. In ITP, platelets are destroyed, not overproduced.
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