A nurse is reinforcing discharge instructions to a client who is 24 hr postpartum and has reported urge incontinence.
Which of the following should the nurse reinforce as a first referral to treat the client?
Referral to pelvic floor physical therapy.
Referral to a urologist.
Referral to sports medicine.
Referral to a primary care physician.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Pelvic floor physical therapy helps strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which can significantly reduce or eliminate urge incontinence in postpartum clients. These specialized exercises target muscle control and bladder function, providing a non-invasive first-line treatment.
Choice B rationale
A urologist specializes in the urinary tract system, but referral is usually not the first step. Initial non-invasive interventions, such as pelvic floor therapy, are typically recommended before consulting a specialist.
Choice C rationale
Sports medicine focuses on physical fitness and the treatment of sports-related injuries. It is not the appropriate referral for treating postpartum urge incontinence, which specifically involves the pelvic floor muscles and urinary system.
Choice D rationale
A primary care physician can provide general medical care, but specialized interventions like pelvic floor therapy are more effective for addressing the specific issue of urge incontinence postpartum.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A fever following surgery is not normal and can indicate an infection; hence, this is not a correct statement.
Choice B rationale
Reporting heavy vaginal bleeding to the doctor is appropriate as it can indicate complications such as infection or retained tissue following a molar pregnancy surgery.
Choice C rationale
It is advised to avoid pregnancy for a period after molar pregnancy to ensure hCG levels return to normal and to monitor for gestational trophoblastic disease.
Choice D rationale
Follow-up visits with the provider are crucial after a molar pregnancy to monitor hCG levels and ensure no complications arise, so delaying visits until pregnancy is incorrect.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Heavy vaginal bleeding at 39 weeks of gestation could be due to placental abruption or placenta previa, which necessitates immediate delivery to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Preparing for cesarean birth is crucial as it allows rapid delivery, reducing the risk of maternal hemorrhage and fetal hypoxia.
Choice B rationale
Performing a cervical examination can exacerbate bleeding in cases of placenta previa or placental abruption, making it unsafe. It can disturb the placenta and lead to further complications, so this option is not recommended.
Choice C rationale
Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia or eclampsia, not for managing heavy vaginal bleeding. Its use is unrelated to the immediate care of a client with heavy vaginal bleeding due to suspected placental issues.
Choice D rationale
Administering antibiotics is not the immediate priority in the case of heavy vaginal bleeding at 39 weeks of gestation. The focus should be on stabilizing the mother and preparing for delivery.
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