A nurse is receiving a telephone prescription for a client from a provider. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when transcribing the prescription?
Use the provider’s initials after the prescription
Repeat the prescription to the provider
Write the prescription in shorthand
Read back the prescription to the provider
The Correct Answer is D
A) Use the provider’s initials after the prescription:
Using the provider's initials after the prescription is not an appropriate or standard practice. The nurse should transcribe the prescription accurately and include the provider's full name or identification, but not initials. The nurse is responsible for ensuring the correct interpretation and transmission of the order, and abbreviations or initials could lead to errors or confusion.
B) Repeat the prescription to the provider:
Repeating the prescription to the provider may not be sufficient. It is important to read the prescription back to the provider to ensure that both the nurse and the provider are in agreement about the medication order. Repeating the prescription is a good practice, but it does not provide the same level of verification as reading it back to ensure its accuracy.
C) Write the prescription in shorthand:
Writing prescriptions in shorthand is unsafe and should be avoided. Shorthand can lead to misunderstandings or misinterpretations of the order, which could result in medication errors. The nurse should transcribe the prescription clearly and in full, without using any abbreviations or shorthand, to ensure clarity and accuracy.
D) Read back the prescription to the provider:
Reading back the prescription to the provider is the correct action. This practice, often referred to as "read-back," helps to confirm that the nurse has accurately heard and understood the provider’s order. It is a safety measure that reduces the likelihood of medication errors, especially in high-risk situations like verbal or telephone orders. The nurse should repeat the prescription verbatim, including dosage, route, frequency, and any other relevant details, to ensure it has been transcribed correctly.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Chloride 112:
Chloride levels are typically not directly associated with numbness or tingling of the hands and fingers. Elevated chloride levels (greater than 108 mEq/L) may indicate metabolic acidosis, but they would not directly explain the symptoms seen in this client following parathyroidectomy. Therefore, this value is unlikely to be relevant in this scenario.
B) Calcium 7.5:
After the partial removal of the parathyroid glands, the client may experience hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, due to the reduced production of parathyroid hormone (PTH). PTH helps regulate calcium levels in the blood. When the parathyroid glands are removed or damaged, there may be insufficient PTH to maintain normal calcium levels, leading to hypocalcemia. Symptoms of hypocalcemia include numbness and tingling, especially in the hands and fingers. A calcium level of 7.5 mg/dL is below the normal range (8.5–10.5 mg/dL), indicating hypocalcemia, which is consistent with the patient's symptoms.
C) Potassium 4.0:
A potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L is within the normal range (3.5–5.0 mEq/L) and does not typically cause numbness or tingling. Although potassium imbalances can cause neuromuscular symptoms, they would not be the most likely cause of the symptoms in this case, especially in relation to parathyroidectomy.
D) Calcium 12.1:
A calcium level of 12.1 mg/dL is elevated and would suggest hypercalcemia. Hypercalcemia can cause symptoms like fatigue, confusion, and weakness, but it does not typically cause numbness and tingling in the hands and fingers. Elevated calcium levels are more likely to occur in conditions such as hyperparathyroidism or malignancy, not typically following parathyroid gland removal. Therefore, this is not the expected lab result in this scenario.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) The client reports dizziness when ambulating to the bathroom:
Dizziness upon ambulation is a key indicator that the client may be experiencing orthostatic hypotension, a potential side effect of antihypertensive medications. If the client is already experiencing dizziness, this could be exacerbated by administering the medication, which may cause a further drop in blood pressure. It is crucial for the nurse to further assess the client’s blood pressure (particularly orthostatic blood pressure readings) and overall clinical status before administering the medication to prevent potential falls, injury, or worsening hypotension.
B) The client reports having trouble sleeping the previous night:
While difficulty sleeping could be a concern, it is not directly related to the administration of an antihypertensive medication unless the client reports other symptoms, such as palpitations, chest pain, or anxiety, which may indicate an underlying issue. It is not a priority to delay or further assess medication administration based solely on sleep disturbances unless other significant factors are present.
C) The client ate 60% of their breakfast:
Eating 60% of the meal is not typically a reason to withhold or delay antihypertensive medication unless the client is showing signs of severe nausea, vomiting, or gastrointestinal distress. Many antihypertensive medications can be taken with food to reduce gastric irritation, and this percentage of food intake does not pose an immediate concern.
D) The client has a urine output of 400 mL for the past 8 hours:
Urine output of 400 mL over 8 hours is within the normal range (approximately 50–60 mL/hr), suggesting adequate renal function and fluid balance. While a decrease in urine output can be concerning, there is no immediate indication that this level of output would interfere with the administration of an antihypertensive medication.
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