A nurse is providing teaching with an antepartum client who has a new diagnosis of genital herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2). Which of the following information should the nurse include?
HSV-2 is not harmful to a developing fetus.
Transmission to the newborn is higher if lesions are present at birth.
Wear tight-fitting undergarments when lesions are present.
Taking antiviral medications will cure the condition.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2) can be harmful to a developing fetus and newborn. While primary infection during the first trimester can rarely lead to congenital anomalies, the most significant risk is neonatal herpes, which occurs when the newborn is exposed to the virus during passage through the birth canal if active lesions are present. Neonatal herpes can cause severe, life-threatening complications.
Choice B rationale
Transmission of HSV-2 to the newborn is significantly higher if active genital lesions are present at the time of vaginal birth. The virus can be shed from these lesions and infect the infant as they pass through the birth canal. Therefore, a Cesarean section is typically recommended if active lesions are present at the onset of labor.
Choice C rationale
Wearing tight-fitting undergarments can increase moisture and friction, potentially irritating existing lesions and hindering healing. Loose-fitting cotton undergarments are generally recommended to allow air circulation and reduce irritation, promoting a more favorable environment for lesion resolution and comfort.
Choice D rationale
Antiviral medications, such as acyclovir, valacyclovir, or famciclovir, can help manage genital herpes by reducing the frequency, duration, and severity of outbreaks. They work by inhibiting viral replication. However, these medications do not cure the condition; HSV-2 remains a lifelong viral infection.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering a rubella immunization during pregnancy is contraindicated because the rubella vaccine is a live attenuated virus vaccine. There is a theoretical risk of viral transmission to the fetus, which could lead to congenital rubella syndrome. Vaccination should occur postpartum to protect future pregnancies.
Choice B rationale
Breastfeeding is not contraindicated after receiving the rubella vaccine. Although rubella vaccine virus can be excreted in breast milk, it generally does not cause clinical illness in the infant and passive transfer of antibodies may provide some protection to the infant.
Choice C rationale
A rubella titer of 1: indicates a low level of rubella antibodies, meaning the client is susceptible to rubella infection. A titer of less than 1: or 1: is generally considered non-immune, requiring vaccination to prevent congenital rubella syndrome in future pregnancies.
Choice D rationale
Repeating a rubella titer in the third trimester is not a standard practice for assessing susceptibility. Once susceptibility is determined, the primary intervention is postpartum vaccination. The initial titer result accurately reflects immune status and further testing during pregnancy is unnecessary.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Ensuring suction is available is critical because clients with severe preeclampsia or eclampsia are at risk for seizures that can cause airway obstruction from secretions or vomiting. Suction readiness supports immediate airway management during a seizure, preventing aspiration and maintaining oxygenation, essential in protecting maternal and fetal health.
Choice B rationale: Administering 10 L of oxygen via nasal cannula is not appropriate because nasal cannulas typically deliver oxygen up to 6 L/min; higher flows require a different delivery system like a non-rebreather mask. Also, routine high-flow oxygen is not indicated unless hypoxia is present. The client’s oxygen saturation is normal (99%), so supplemental oxygen at this rate is unnecessary and could cause discomfort or drying of mucous membranes.
Choice C rationale: Raising side rails is a safety measure to prevent injury during seizures or sudden movements caused by central nervous system irritability in preeclampsia. Elevated side rails help protect the client from falls or trauma if a seizure occurs, an essential precaution in clients with neurological symptoms such as hyperreflexia and clonus.
Choice D rationale: Placing a padded tongue blade at the bedside prepares for seizure management by preventing tongue biting and airway obstruction. The padded blade reduces the risk of oral trauma during convulsions and maintains airway patency. However, it should be used carefully to avoid airway injury or obstruction and only if a seizure occurs.
Choice E rationale: Dimming lights reduces environmental stimuli that may exacerbate neurological irritability or trigger seizures in preeclampsia/eclampsia. Bright or flashing lights can increase CNS excitation, worsening headache, visual disturbances, or seizure risk. Creating a calm, low-stimulation environment helps stabilize the client’s neurological status.
Choice F rationale: Placing the client in the supine position is contraindicated because it compresses the inferior vena cava, reducing venous return and cardiac output, potentially worsening placental perfusion. The left lateral position is preferred in hypertensive pregnancy to optimize uteroplacental blood flow and maternal hemodynamics, improving fetal oxygenation and maternal comfort.
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