A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has a prescription for an amniocentesis. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
I will be asleep during the procedure.
I should start fasting 24 hours before the procedure.
I will be lying on my side during the procedure.
I should empty my bladder before the procedure.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Amniocentesis is not a surgical procedure that requires general anesthesia, so the client will not be asleep during the procedure.
Choice B rationale
Fasting is not typically required before an amniocentesis. The procedure involves inserting a thin needle into the amniotic sac to withdraw a small amount of fluid for testing. It does not involve the digestive system, so there is no need for the client to fast.
Choice C rationale
While the client may be in various positions during the procedure, lying on the side is not typically required. The position of the client during the procedure is determined by the location of the baby and the amniotic sac.
Choice D rationale
Emptying the bladder before the procedure can make it easier for the healthcare provider to access the uterus and amniotic sac. Therefore, this statement indicates an understanding of the teaching.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Gestational diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication for a contraction stress test. This condition affects how the mother’s body uses glucose (sugar) during pregnancy, but it does not interfere with the ability to perform a contraction stress test.
Choice B rationale
A previous stillbirth is not a contraindication for a contraction stress test. A stillbirth refers to the loss of a baby after 20 weeks of pregnancy. While this is a significant event, it does not prevent the mother from undergoing a contraction stress test in a subsequent pregnancy.
Choice C rationale
A nonreactive nonstress test is not a contraindication for a contraction stress test. A nonreactive nonstress test indicates that the baby’s heart rate does not speed up (or “react”) as it should when the baby moves. However, this result does not prevent the mother from undergoing a contraction stress test.
Choice D rationale
A previous classical incision is a contraindication for a contraction stress test. A classical incision refers to a vertical cut in the upper part of the uterus, which is typically used during a cesarean section. This type of incision increases the risk of uterine rupture, which can be life- threatening for both the mother and the baby. Therefore, a contraction stress test, which induces contractions, should not be performed due to the risk of uterine rupture.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Decreased extremity edema is a positive sign in a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) 48 hours postpartum. DVT is a blood clot that forms in a vein deep in the body, often in the lower leg or thigh. Edema, or swelling, is a common symptom. A decrease in edema may indicate that the condition is improving.
Choice B rationale
Redness in the extremity is not a positive sign in a client with DVT1112. Redness can indicate inflammation or infection, which could suggest a worsening of the condition.
Choice C rationale
Leukocytosis, or an increase in the number of white blood cells, is not a positive sign in a client with DVT1112. It can indicate an infection or inflammation, which could suggest a worsening of the condition.
Choice D rationale
Tachycardia, or a fast heart rate, is not a positive sign in a client with DVT1112. It can indicate a response to decreased oxygen levels in the blood, which could suggest a worsening of the condition.
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