A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hour postpartum and has uterine atony. The client is exhibiting a large amount of vaginal bleeding.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Avoid performing sterile vaginal examinations
Administer betamethasone IM
Obtain a specimen for a Kleihauer-Betke test
Anticipate a prescription for misoprostol
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Avoiding performing sterile vaginal examinations does not directly address the issue of uterine atony and excessive bleeding. While limiting vaginal examinations can reduce the risk of infection, it does not treat uterine atony.
Choice B rationale
Administering betamethasone IM is not the appropriate action. Betamethasone is a steroid medication that is often given to pregnant women who are at risk of preterm birth to help mature the baby’s lungs. It does not treat uterine atony or excessive bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Obtaining a specimen for a Kleihauer-Betke test is not the appropriate action in this situation. The Kleihauer-Betke test is used to detect fetal blood in maternal circulation, which is not relevant in this case.
Choice D rationale
Anticipating a prescription for misoprostol is the correct action. Misoprostol is a medication that can be used to treat uterine atony by causing the uterus to contract, which can help control postpartum bleeding.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Ovulation will indeed remain the same after a tubal ligation. The procedure involves blocking or sealing the fallopian tubes, which prevents the egg from reaching the uterus. However, the ovaries continue to release eggs.
Choice B rationale
A tubal ligation procedure does not affect the length of the menstrual period. The menstrual cycle is regulated by hormones, not the patency of the fallopian tubes.
Choice C rationale
Premenstrual tension or premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is not eliminated by tubal ligation. PMS is related to the hormonal changes that occur during the menstrual cycle.
Choice D rationale
Hormone replacements are not needed following a tubal ligation. The ovaries continue to produce hormones as they did before the procedure.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While it’s true that there may not have been any indication of GBS in earlier prenatal testing, this does not explain why the test was not conducted earlier. GBS can come and go in the body, so a negative test earlier in pregnancy does not guarantee that the woman will still be GBS-negative later in pregnancy.
Choice B rationale
Even if previous deliveries were all negative for GBS, this does not mean that the woman will not have GBS in this pregnancy. GBS can come and go in the body, so each pregnancy is considered separately.
Choice C rationale
GBS is usually asymptomatic in adults, so the woman would not typically report any symptoms of GBS during her pregnancy. This does not explain why the test was not conducted earlier.
Choice D rationale
GBS testing is typically done between 35-37 weeks of gestation. This is because GBS can come and go in the body, so testing during this time frame gives the best prediction of whether or not the woman will have GBS at the time of delivery.
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