A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the purpose of her upcoming indirect Coombs' test. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
"This test determines if your baby is at risk for developing hypoglycemia after birth.".
"This test will determine the amount of amniotic fluid around the fetus.".
"This test studies blood flow in the fetus and placenta using ultrasound waves.".
"This test will detect the presence of Rh-positive antibodies in your blood."
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
This statement is incorrect. An indirect Coombs' test is not used to determine the risk of hypoglycemia in a baby after birth. It is used to detect antibodies against red blood cells, particularly in the context of blood incompatibility between a pregnant woman and her fetus.
Choice B rationale:
This statement is incorrect. An indirect Coombs' test is not related to determining the amount of amniotic fluid around the fetus. It is used primarily to assess for Rh incompatibility between the mother and fetus.
Choice C rationale:
This statement is incorrect. The test described here is a Doppler ultrasound, not an indirect Coombs' test. Doppler ultrasound is used to study blood flow in the fetus and placenta using ultrasound waves.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should assess this client first as they are at 34 weeks of gestation and experiencing epigastric pain and headache. These symptoms could be indicative of preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage. Preeclampsia requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale:
Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms during the first trimester of pregnancy, and at 12 weeks of gestation, it is less likely to be a critical issue compared to potential preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale:
Painful urination may indicate a urinary tract infection, which can be important to assess and treat, but it is not as urgent as potential signs of preeclampsia in a client at 34 weeks of gestation.
Choice D rationale:
Cramping and spotting can be normal signs of impending labor, especially at 39 weeks of gestation. While it's important to assess this client, it is not the priority over potential preeclampsia in a client at 34 weeks of gestation with symptoms of epigastric pain and headache.
Correct Answer is D,C,B,A
Explanation
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