A nurse is providing care for an adolescent who was brought to the emergency department (ED) by their guardians due to pain in the left arm that started the previous evening.
The adolescent has a history of sickle cell disease diagnosed at age 4. They have a prescription for oral morphine sulfate and took one dose the previous evening at 1800 and another this morning at 0900.
The adolescent reports no relief from pain, rating it as 9 on a scale of 0 to 10. For each potential provider’s prescription, specify if the prescription is anticipated, nonessential, or contraindicated for the client.
Intravenous fluids (IVF) at maintenance rate
Meperidine IV for pain
Ice packs to the affected area for 15 min on/15 min off
Oxygen 2 L/min via nasal cannula
The Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"C"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"A"}}
Choice A rationale
Intravenous fluids (IVF) at maintenance rate is anticipated for the client. Dehydration can increase the viscosity of the blood and promote sickling in clients with sickle cell disease. Therefore, maintaining hydration is crucial in managing sickle cell crises.
Choice B rationale
Meperidine IV for pain is contraindicated for the client. Meperidine has been associated with a higher risk of seizures, especially in clients with kidney dysfunction, which can occur in sickle cell disease due to sickling in the renal vasculature.
Choice C rationale
Ice packs to the affected area for 15 min on/15 min off is nonessential for the client. While cold therapy can help reduce inflammation and numb pain, it can also lead to vasoconstriction, which can potentially exacerbate sickling. Therefore, it’s generally recommended to use warm compresses rather than ice packs in clients with sickle cell disease.
Choice D rationale
Oxygen 2 L/min via nasal cannula is anticipated for the client. Hypoxia can trigger sickling in clients with sickle cell disease, so oxygen therapy is often used to increase oxygen saturation and reduce the risk of sickling.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The G in GTPAL stands for gravida, which is the number of times an individual has conceived, including any current pregnancy. In this case, G3 means the client has had three pregnancies, which includes two prior pregnancies and the current one.
Choice B rationale
The client’s record does not indicate that she is currently pregnant with twins, making this choice incorrect.
Choice C rationale
The A in GTPAL stands for the number of abortions, which refers to all times the individual has lost a pregnancy before 20 weeks. In this case, A1 means the client has had one abortion, indicating a risk for miscarriage.
Choice D rationale
The T in GTPAL stands for term births, which refers to the number of times an individual has carried a pregnancy to at least 37 weeks of gestation and delivered. In this case, T1 means the client has had one full-term birth.
Choice E rationale
The L in GTPAL stands for living children. In this case, L1 means the client has one living child.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While reduced fetal oxygen supply can occur with hypertonic contractions and inadequate uterine relaxation, it’s not the primary adverse effect. The main concern is the impact on the progress of labor.
Choice B rationale
This is the correct answer. Inadequate uterine relaxation between hypertonic contractions can delay cervical dilation, slowing the progress of labor.
Choice C rationale
Prolonged labor is not typically associated with hypertonic contractions and inadequate uterine relaxation. In fact, these conditions can lead to a more rapid labor.
Choice D rationale
Increased maternal stress can occur with any labor complication, but it’s not the primary adverse effect of hypertonic contractions and inadequate uterine relaxation.
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