A nurse is assessing a postpartum client for fundal height, location, and consistency. The fundus is found to be displaced laterally to the right, and there is uterine atony. Which of the following is the cause of the uterine atony?
Urinary retention
Poor involution
Infection
Hemorrhage
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Uterine atony refers to a soft and weak uterus after childbirth. It happens when your uterine muscles don’t contract enough to clamp the placental blood vessels shut after childbirth. This can lead to life-threatening blood loss after delivery. One of the causes of uterine atony is urinary retention. When the bladder is full, it can displace the uterus, preventing it from contracting properly. This can lead to uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage. Therefore, urinary retention can cause uterine atony and lateral displacement of the fundus.
Choice B rationale
Poor involution of the uterus is a condition where the uterus does not return to its normal size after childbirth. While poor involution can lead to prolonged bleeding, it does not directly cause uterine atony. Uterine atony is specifically a lack of muscle contraction, while poor involution is a failure of the uterus to reduce in size.
Choice C rationale
While infection can lead to many complications during the postpartum period, it is not a direct cause of uterine atony. Infections can cause endometritis, which is inflammation of the uterine lining, but this does not prevent the uterus from contracting.
Choice D rationale
Hemorrhage, or heavy bleeding, is a result of uterine atony, not a cause. When the uterus does not contract properly after childbirth, it can lead to excessive bleeding, or hemorrhage.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Deep tendon reflexes of +1 are not consistent with preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and signs of kidney damage. One of the symptoms can be hyperreflexia, or overly active reflexes, not diminished reflexes.
Choice B rationale
Blood pressure of 148/98 mm Hg is consistent with preeclampsia, as one of the defining features of preeclampsia is high blood pressure.
Choice C rationale
1+ pitting sacral edema is consistent with preeclampsia. Edema, or swelling, is a common symptom of preeclampsia.
Choice D rationale
3+ protein in the urine is consistent with preeclampsia. One of the defining features of preeclampsia is the presence of excess protein in urine (proteinuria), which indicates kidney problems. Deep vein thrombosis Deep vein thrombosis Explore
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice C rationale
The apex of the heart is the most appropriate site to assess an infant’s heart rate. In infants, the apical pulse provides the most accurate assessment of heart rate. The apical pulse is located at the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line.
Choice A rationale
The carotid artery is not typically used to assess an infant’s heart rate. This site is more commonly used in adults and older children.
Choice B rationale
The brachial artery can be used to assess an infant’s heart rate, but it is typically used for blood pressure measurements rather than heart rate assessments.
Choice D rationale
The radial artery is not typically used to assess an infant’s heart rate. This site is more commonly used in adults and older children.
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