Sarah, a 34-year-old pregnant woman, has had a blood pressure consistently ranging from 140/90 to 160/98 since she was 26. Her weight gain and urinalysis have been normal.
What is this condition called? At 32 weeks’ gestation, Sarah experiences a seizure.
Her blood pressure has been elevated since 28 weeks, her urine dipstick shows 4+ protein, and she exhibits generalized edema.
What is this condition called?
Gestational hypertension; preeclampsia
Chronic hypertension; eclampsia
Gestational hypertension; eclampsia
Chronic hypertension; HELLP Syndrome
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Gestational hypertension is characterized by high blood pressure that develops after 20 weeks of pregnancy and typically resolves within a few weeks postpartum. Preeclampsia is a pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and signs of kidney damage.
However, Sarah’s condition does not fit this description because her blood pressure has been consistently high since she was 26, not just during pregnancy.
Choice B rationale
Chronic hypertension refers to high blood pressure before pregnancy or early in pregnancy. Eclampsia is a severe form of preeclampsia that causes seizures. Given Sarah’s history of consistent high blood pressure since age 26 and her recent seizure at 32 weeks’ gestation, this choice fits her condition.
Choice C rationale
Gestational hypertension refers to high blood pressure that begins during pregnancy. Eclampsia is a severe form of preeclampsia that causes seizures. However, Sarah’s high blood pressure did not begin during pregnancy, making this choice incorrect.
Choice D rationale
Chronic hypertension refers to high blood pressure before pregnancy or early in pregnancy. HELLP Syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzyme levels, and Low Platelet levels) is a serious health condition that can affect pregnant women3. However, Sarah’s symptoms do not indicate HELLP Syndrome, making this choice incorrect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Terbutaline does not typically cause a decrease in maternal blood glucose levels. It is a medication used to relax the muscles in the uterus to prevent premature labor.
Choice B rationale
Terbutaline does not enhance the production of fetal lung surfactant. It is used to relax the muscles in the uterus to prevent premature labor.
Choice C rationale
Weakened uterine contractions are an expected finding in a client who has received terbutaline. Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication, which means it works to inhibit uterine contractions in order to prevent or halt preterm labor.
Choice D rationale
Terbutaline does not typically cause a decrease in fetal heart rate. It is used to relax the muscles in the uterus to prevent premature labor.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Cervical dilation is a key sign that labor has begun. During labor, the cervix dilates to allow the baby to pass through the birth canal. This is a physical change that can be measured during a pelvic exam.
Choice B rationale
Pain above the umbilicus is not typically a sign of labor. During labor, contractions are usually felt as a tightening or cramping in the lower abdomen or back.
Choice C rationale
Brownish vaginal discharge can occur during pregnancy and is not necessarily a sign of labor. If the discharge is heavy, or accompanied by other symptoms such as pain or cramping, it should be evaluated by a healthcare provider.
Choice D rationale
The presence of amniotic fluid in the vaginal vault, also known as “water breaking,” can be a sign that labor is imminent. However, it does not confirm that labor has begun, as it can occur before the onset of contractions and cervical dilation.
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