Sarah, a 34-year-old pregnant woman, has had a blood pressure consistently ranging from 140/90 to 160/98 since she was 26. Her weight gain and urinalysis have been normal.
What is this condition called? At 32 weeks’ gestation, Sarah experiences a seizure.
Her blood pressure has been elevated since 28 weeks, her urine dipstick shows 4+ protein, and she exhibits generalized edema.
What is this condition called?
Gestational hypertension; preeclampsia
Chronic hypertension; eclampsia
Gestational hypertension; eclampsia
Chronic hypertension; HELLP Syndrome
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Gestational hypertension is characterized by high blood pressure that develops after 20 weeks of pregnancy and typically resolves within a few weeks postpartum. Preeclampsia is a pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and signs of kidney damage.
However, Sarah’s condition does not fit this description because her blood pressure has been consistently high since she was 26, not just during pregnancy.
Choice B rationale
Chronic hypertension refers to high blood pressure before pregnancy or early in pregnancy. Eclampsia is a severe form of preeclampsia that causes seizures. Given Sarah’s history of consistent high blood pressure since age 26 and her recent seizure at 32 weeks’ gestation, this choice fits her condition.
Choice C rationale
Gestational hypertension refers to high blood pressure that begins during pregnancy. Eclampsia is a severe form of preeclampsia that causes seizures. However, Sarah’s high blood pressure did not begin during pregnancy, making this choice incorrect.
Choice D rationale
Chronic hypertension refers to high blood pressure before pregnancy or early in pregnancy. HELLP Syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzyme levels, and Low Platelet levels) is a serious health condition that can affect pregnant women3. However, Sarah’s symptoms do not indicate HELLP Syndrome, making this choice incorrect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["90"]
Explanation
The correct answer is less than 90 beats per minute.
Step 1 is to understand the guidelines for administering digoxin to infants. According to the American Academy of Pediatrics, the nurse should withhold the dose if the infant’s apical heart rate is less than 90 beats per minute.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Acute rheumatic fever is a complication that can occur after an infection with group A streptococcus, which causes strep throat and sometimes scarlet fever. The most common symptoms of rheumatic fever include fever, painful and tender joints, pain in the chest, fatigue, fast heart rate, palpitations, and multiple-joint inflammation. Therefore, asking if the child has had a sore throat recently is relevant as it could indicate a recent strep throat infection, which is a common precursor to acute rheumatic fever.
Choice B rationale
While injuries can lead to various health complications, they are not directly related to the development of acute rheumatic fever. Acute rheumatic fever is primarily caused by an overreaction of the body’s immune system to a strep throat or scarlet fever infection.
Therefore, recent injuries would not typically be a relevant factor in a suspected case of acute rheumatic fever.
Choice C rationale
Acute rheumatic fever is not a congenital condition, meaning it is not present from birth. It develops as a complication of strep throat or scarlet fever. Therefore, asking if the child was born with a cardiac defect would not typically be relevant in a suspected case of acute rheumatic fever.
Choice D rationale
While aspirin is often used in the treatment of rheumatic fever to reduce inflammation and pain, it is not a cause of the condition. Therefore, asking if the child has been given aspirin in the past 2 weeks would not typically be relevant in a suspected case of acute rheumatic fever.
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