Sarah, a 34-year-old pregnant woman, has had a blood pressure consistently ranging from 140/90 to 160/98 since she was 26. Her weight gain and urinalysis have been normal.
What is this condition called? At 32 weeks’ gestation, Sarah experiences a seizure.
Her blood pressure has been elevated since 28 weeks, her urine dipstick shows 4+ protein, and she exhibits generalized edema.
What is this condition called?
Gestational hypertension; preeclampsia
Chronic hypertension; eclampsia
Gestational hypertension; eclampsia
Chronic hypertension; HELLP Syndrome
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Gestational hypertension is characterized by high blood pressure that develops after 20 weeks of pregnancy and typically resolves within a few weeks postpartum. Preeclampsia is a pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and signs of kidney damage.
However, Sarah’s condition does not fit this description because her blood pressure has been consistently high since she was 26, not just during pregnancy.
Choice B rationale
Chronic hypertension refers to high blood pressure before pregnancy or early in pregnancy. Eclampsia is a severe form of preeclampsia that causes seizures. Given Sarah’s history of consistent high blood pressure since age 26 and her recent seizure at 32 weeks’ gestation, this choice fits her condition.
Choice C rationale
Gestational hypertension refers to high blood pressure that begins during pregnancy. Eclampsia is a severe form of preeclampsia that causes seizures. However, Sarah’s high blood pressure did not begin during pregnancy, making this choice incorrect.
Choice D rationale
Chronic hypertension refers to high blood pressure before pregnancy or early in pregnancy. HELLP Syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzyme levels, and Low Platelet levels) is a serious health condition that can affect pregnant women3. However, Sarah’s symptoms do not indicate HELLP Syndrome, making this choice incorrect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While reduced fetal oxygen supply can occur with hypertonic contractions and inadequate uterine relaxation, it’s not the primary adverse effect. The main concern is the impact on the progress of labor.
Choice B rationale
This is the correct answer. Inadequate uterine relaxation between hypertonic contractions can delay cervical dilation, slowing the progress of labor.
Choice C rationale
Prolonged labor is not typically associated with hypertonic contractions and inadequate uterine relaxation. In fact, these conditions can lead to a more rapid labor.
Choice D rationale
Increased maternal stress can occur with any labor complication, but it’s not the primary adverse effect of hypertonic contractions and inadequate uterine relaxation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Indomethacin (Indocin) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that reduces fever, pain and inflammation. It is used to treat moderate to severe osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, gouty arthritis, or ankylosing spondylitis. It is not used to accelerate fetal lung maturity.
Choice B rationale
Nifedipine (Procardia) is a calcium channel blocker used to treat high blood pressure (hypertension) or chest pain (angina). It is not used to accelerate fetal lung maturity.
Choice C rationale
Calcium gluconate is used to prevent or to treat calcium deficiencies. It is not used to accelerate fetal lung maturity.
Choice D rationale
Betamethasone (Celestone) is a corticosteroid that is used to mature the lungs in fetuses at risk for preterm birth.
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