A nurse is presenting a community-based program about HIV and AIDS. A client asks the nurse to describe the initial symptoms experienced with HIV infection. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse include in the explanation of initial symptoms?
Flu-like symptoms and night sweats
Kaposi's sarcoma
Fungal and bacterial infections
Pneumocystis lung infection
Pneumocystis lung infection
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Flu-like symptoms: These are common during the early stages of HIV infection, often within 2-4 weeks after exposure to the virus. They are a result of the body's immune system responding to the virus. Symptoms can include:
Fever Fatigue
Muscle aches
Headache Sore throat
Rash
Swollen lymph nodes
Night sweats: These are also common in early HIV infection and can be caused by the body's attempts to fight off the virus or by inflammation. They can also be a side effect of some HIV medications.
Choice B rationale:
Kaposi's sarcoma (KS): This is a type of cancer that is associated with HIV infection. It is caused by a virus called Kaposi's sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV). KS often appears as purple or red lesions on the skin or in the mouth. It can also affect other organs, such as the lungs and lymph nodes. However, it's not a common initial symptom of HIV infection. It usually develops in later stages of HIV when the immune system is severely weakened.
Choice C rationale:
Fungal and bacterial infections: People with HIV are more susceptible to infections because the virus weakens their immune system. However, fungal and bacterial infections are not typically among the initial symptoms of HIV infection. They usually occur in later stages of the disease when the immune system is more compromised.
Choice D rationale:
Pneumocystis lung infection (PCP): This is a serious lung infection that is caused by a fungus called Pneumocystis jirovecii. It is a common opportunistic infection in people with HIV, but it is not typically an initial symptom. It usually develops in later stages of HIV when the CD4 count (a measure of immune system health) is very low.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Serum creatinine is a waste product that is produced by muscle metabolism and is normally excreted by the kidneys.
When kidney function is impaired, creatinine levels in the blood increase, making it a sensitive and specific indicator of renal function.
It is considered one of the most reliable markers for assessing kidney function and is routinely used to screen for and monitor kidney disease.
Choice B rationale:
Serum sodium is an electrolyte that is regulated by the kidneys, but it is not a direct measure of renal function. Sodium levels can be affected by various factors, including fluid intake, medications, and hormonal imbalances.
While abnormal sodium levels can sometimes be a sign of kidney dysfunction, they can also occur due to other conditions, making it less specific as an indicator of renal function.
Choice C rationale:
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is another waste product that is produced by the breakdown of proteins and is normally excreted by the kidneys.
However, BUN levels can be influenced by factors other than kidney function, such as dietary protein intake, dehydration, and gastrointestinal bleeding.
This makes BUN less specific than serum creatinine as a marker of renal function.
Choice D rationale:
Urine-specific gravity measures the concentration of solutes in urine, which can provide some information about kidney function.
However, it is not as sensitive or specific as serum creatinine.
Urine-specific gravity can be affected by factors such as fluid intake and hydration status, which can make it less reliable as an indicator of renal function.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant medication that is typically used long-term to control seizures. It is not a medication that can be stopped abruptly, as this can lead to the recurrence of seizures or even status epilepticus, a life-threatening condition characterized by continuous seizure activity.
The client's statement, "I'll be glad when I can stop taking this medicine," indicates a lack of understanding about the long- term nature of phenytoin therapy and the potential risks associated with stopping the medication prematurely.
Further teaching is needed to emphasize the importance of medication adherence and the potential consequences of non- adherence.
Choice B rationale:
Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia (overgrowth of gum tissue), so it is important for clients taking this medication to see a dentist regularly for checkups and cleanings.
The client's statement, "I have made an appointment to see my dentist next week," indicates an understanding of this potential side effect and the need for regular dental care.
Choice C rationale:
Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic index, meaning that there is a small difference between the effective dose and the toxic dose.
Switching brands of phenytoin can lead to changes in blood levels of the medication, which could potentially result in therapeutic failure or toxicity.
The client's statement, "I know that I cannot switch brands of this medication," indicates an understanding of this important safety consideration.
Choice D rationale:
Phenytoin can interact with many other medications, including over-the-counter medications and herbal supplements.
It is important for clients taking phenytoin to notify their doctor before taking any other medications to avoid potential drug interactions.
The client's statement, "I will notify my doctor before taking any other medications," indicates an understanding of this potential risk.
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