A nurse is preparing to obtain a blood specimen from a preschooler. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform?
Collect 4 mL/kg of blood in a 24-hr period.
Apply lidocaine cream 30 min prior to collecting the specimen.
Ask the parents to leave the room prior to collecting the blood specimen.
Demonstrate the use of the equipment to the child.
The Correct Answer is D
Rationale:
A. Collect 4 mL/kg of blood in a 24-hr period: This volume exceeds safe limits for blood collection in small children. The guideline is not to exceed 3 mL/kg over 24 hours unless clinically necessary, as excessive draws can lead to anemia or hemodynamic instability.
B. Apply lidocaine cream 30 min prior to collecting the specimen: While lidocaine-prilocaine cream can be helpful, it typically requires at least 60 minutes to achieve adequate dermal analgesia. Applying it for only 30 minutes may not be sufficient to reduce pain effectively.
C. Ask the parents to leave the room prior to collecting the blood specimen: Parents are often a source of comfort and reassurance for preschoolers. Unless their presence is disruptive, involving them in the process can help calm the child and improve cooperation.
D. Demonstrate the use of the equipment to the child: Preschoolers benefit from age-appropriate explanations and demonstrations. Showing them the equipment reduces fear and anxiety by promoting familiarity and a sense of control in an unfamiliar situation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Butorphanol tartrate: This opioid analgesic can cause respiratory depression in the newborn if given too close to delivery. At 10 cm dilation and during pushing, it's generally too late to administer systemic opioids safely.
B. Pudendal block: A pudendal block provides localized perineal anesthesia and is safe for use during the second stage of labor when the client is fully dilated and pushing. It effectively reduces pain from stretching and pressure without affecting uterine contractions or fetal status.
C. Naloxone hydrochloride: Naloxone is not a pain-management measure; it is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression. It does not provide analgesia and is not administered for pain relief during labor.
D. Spinal anesthesia: Spinal anesthesia is typically administered prior to a planned cesarean birth or late in the first stage of labor. It is not appropriate once the client is fully dilated and actively pushing, as it could delay delivery and complicate maternal positioning.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"D"}
Explanation
Rationale for Correct Choices:
- Seizures: The client presents with severe preeclampsia, indicated by BP >160/110 mm Hg, 3+ proteinuria, hyperreflexia (patellar reflex 4+), and persistent headache. These are strong predictors of progression to eclampsia, which is marked by seizures.
- Placental Abruption: Severe hypertension increases the risk of placental abruption due to vascular compromise in the uteroplacental circulation. Decreased fetal movement may be an early warning sign of impaired placental perfusion or separation.
Rationale for Incorrect Choices:
- Cervical Insufficiency: This is a painless cervical dilation often leading to second-trimester loss, unrelated to hypertension or proteinuria. The client is in the third trimester with no signs of cervical changes.
- Hypoglycemia: The client has no history of diabetes, glucose intolerance, or related symptoms. Her urine glucose was only trace, and no medications suggest insulin use.
- Heart Failure: No signs of pulmonary congestion, dyspnea, or elevated heart rate are present. Oxygen saturation is normal, and breath sounds are not mentioned as abnormal, making CHF unlikely at this stage.
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