A nurse is preparing to administer lorazepam 1 mg PO to an older adult client who has insomnia and who cannot swallow oral tablets.
Available is lorazepam oral solution 2 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse plan to administer?
(Round to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies.)
The Correct Answer is ["0.5"]
Step 1 is to determine the amount of lorazepam that needs to be administered, which is 1 mg.
Step 2 is to calculate the volume of lorazepam oral solution needed to deliver this dose. This is done using the formula:
Dose (mg) ÷ Concentration (mg/mL)
Given that the solution has a concentration of 2 mg/mL, we calculate:
1 mg ÷ 2 mg/mL = 0.5 mL
Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.5 mL of lorazepam oral solution.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Asking “Why don’t you want to take the medication?” can help the nurse understand the client’s concerns or fears about the medication. However, it may come across as confrontational.
Choice B rationale:
Saying “I always do what the doctor tells me to do” does not address the client’s concerns and imposes the nurse’s personal beliefs on the client.
Choice C rationale:
Asking “Tell me more about this decision” is an open-ended question that encourages the client to express their feelings and concerns, allowing the nurse to provide appropriate education and support.
Choice D rationale:
Telling the client “You won’t get better unless you take the medication” is a threatening statement that does not respect the client’s autonomy or feelings.
So, the correct answer is C, “Tell me more about this decision.”.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Switching brands of phenytoin can lead to variations in drug absorption and serum drug levels, potentially leading to a loss of seizure control or toxicity. Therefore, this is not a correct instruction.
Choice B rationale:
Altering the phenytoin administration regimen each week can lead to fluctuations in serum drug levels, potentially leading to a loss of seizure control or toxicity. Therefore, this is not a correct instruction.
Choice C rationale:
Phenytoin does not turn urine blue. This is a side effect associated with some other medications, but not phenytoin. Therefore, this is not a correct instruction.
Choice D rationale:
Alcohol can increase serum phenytoin levels, potentially leading to toxicity. Therefore, this is a correct instruction.
So, the correct answer is D. Alcohol increases the chance of phenytoin toxicity.
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