A nurse is preparing to administer lidocaine via continuous IV infusion at 4 mg/min. Available is lidocaine 2 g dextrose 5% in water 500 mL. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
(Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
The Correct Answer is ["60"]
Step 1: Determine the Lidocaine Concentration
- The solution contains 2 grams (2000 mg) of lidocaine in 500 mL.
- To find the amount of lidocaine per mL:
2000 mg ÷ 500 mL = 4 mg/mL
Step 2: Calculate the Total Dose per Hour
- The prescribed infusion rate is 4 mg per minute.
- In 1 hour (60 minutes), the total dose is:
4 mg/min × 60 min = 240 mg/hr
Step 3: Determine the Infusion Rate in mL/hr
- Since each mL contains 4 mg of lidocaine:
240 mg ÷ 4 mg/mL = 60 mL/hr
The nurse should set the IV pump to 60 mL/hr for the continuous IV infusion of lidocaine at a rate of 4 mg/min.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Bone loss is correct. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to decreased bone density (osteoporosis) over extended periods of use, particularly in older adults. This adverse effect increases the risk of fractures and bone-related issues due to the drug's impact on bone health and calcium absorption.
Choice B Reason:
Liver toxicity is incorrect. While prednisone can affect liver function tests in some cases, it is less commonly associated with significant liver toxicity compared to other medications. However, liver function should be monitored during prolonged use.
Choice C Reason:
Hemolytic anemia is incorrect. Prednisone is not typically associated with causing hemolytic anemia as an adverse effect.
Choice D Reason:
Hypoglycemia is not a common adverse effect associated with prednisone use. In fact, prednisone can elevate blood sugar levels and may lead to hyperglycemia or exacerbate diabetes in susceptible individuals.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
"I will check the client's INR before administering the heparin." is incorrect. Checking the client's INR (International Normalized Ratio) is essential, but it's more applicable for monitoring anticoagulants like warfarin, not heparin. Heparin's effect is typically monitored via activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) or anti-Xa levels, not INR.
Choice B Reason:
"I will aspirate before administering the heparin." Is incorrect. Aspirating before administering heparin injections is not necessary because the medication is given subcutaneously or intravenously and not into a blood vessel.
Choice C Reason:
"I will massage the site after injecting the heparin." Is incorrect. Massaging the site after injecting heparin could increase the risk of bruising or hematoma formation at the injection site. It's generally advised to avoid massaging the area after a heparin injection to prevent tissue trauma.
Choice D Reason:
"I will apply pressure for 1 minute after the injection." Is correct. Applying pressure to the injection site for about a minute after administering heparin helps reduce the risk of bleeding or hematoma formation, especially with subcutaneous injections. This practice aids in minimizing bleeding at the injection site.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.