A nurse is preparing to administer hydralazine to a client with eclampsia who has a blood pressure of 180/120 mmHg.

What is the rationale for administering this medication?

To prevent cerebral edema

To reduce uterine contractions

To increase placental perfusion

To promote diuresis

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

To increase placental perfusion.

Hydralazine is an antihypertensive drug that dilates the blood vessels and lowers the blood pressure. By doing so, it improves the blood flow to the placenta and reduces the risk of fetal hypoxia and growth restriction.

Choice A is wrong because hydralazine does not prevent cerebral edema.

Cerebral edema is a complication of severe preeclampsia or eclampsia that can cause seizures, headaches, and visual disturbances. Hydralazine may lower the blood pressure and reduce the risk of stroke, but it does not directly affect the brain swelling.

Choice B is wrong because hydralazine does not reduce uterine contractions.

Uterine contractions are stimulated by oxytocin and prostaglandins, which are not affected by hydralazine. Hydralazine may cause reflex tachycardia, which can increase the cardiac output and uterine blood flow, but it does not alter the uterine muscle activity.

Choice D is wrong because hydralazine does not promote diuresis.

Diuresis is the increased production of urine by the kidneys.

Hydralazine may cause fluid retention and edema by activating the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, which increases sodium and water reabsorption. Hydralazine may also cause a decrease in renal perfusion and glomerular filtration rate, which can impair the kidney function and urine output.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

“This medication will help my baby’s lungs develop faster.” Corticosteroid therapy is given to pregnant clients with eclampsia to accelerate fetal lung maturity and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn.

Some possible explanations for the other choices are:

• Choice A is wrong because corticosteroids do not lower blood pressure.Antihypertensive drugs such as hydralazine or labetalol are used to treat hypertension in eclampsia.

• Choice B is wrong because corticosteroids do not prevent seizures.Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis and treatment in eclampsia.

• Choice D is wrong because corticosteroids do not reduce inflammation in the body.They may have anti-inflammatory effects in some conditions, but their main purpose in eclampsia is to enhance fetal lung development.

Normal ranges for blood pressure and proteinuria in pregnancy are:

• Blood pressure: less than 140/90 mm Hg

• Proteinuria: less than 300 mg/24 hours or less than 1+ on dipstick

A. To prevent seizures B. To lower blood pressure C. To induce labor D. To reduce edema

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. To prevent seizures.

Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that can reduce seizure risks in women with severe preeclampsia.It is often given intravenously and can also be used to prolong pregnancy for up to two days.Magnesium sulfate is also used to prevent and manage seizures in women with postpartum preeclampsia.

• Statement B is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not lower blood pressure.It may be given along with medications that help reduce blood pressure.

• Statement C is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not induce labor.It may be given to delay delivery for up to 48 hours to allow time for the administration of drugs that speed up the baby’s lung development.

• Statement D is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not reduce edema.Edema is a common symptom of preeclampsia, but it is not a direct cause of complications.

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A nurse is preparing to administer hydralazine to a client with eclampsia who has a blood pressure of 180/120 mmHg. What is the rationale for administering this medication?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is teaching a client with eclampsia about the purpose of corticosteroid therapy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client with severe pre-eclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. What is the primary reason for administering magnesium sulfate to this client?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is assessing a client with eclampsia who is having a seizure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with HELLP syndrome. Which of the following findings would indicate hemolysis?

(select all that apply) A nurse is planning care for a client with eclampsia who is scheduled for delivery as soon as possible. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan? (Select all that apply.)

A nurse is assessing a client who has eclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate IV. Which of the following findings should alert the nurse to suspect magnesium toxicity?

A nurse is caring for a client with HELLP syndrome who is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. What is the main purpose of this medication?

A nurse is administering corticosteroids to a client with severe pre-eclampsia who is 32 weeks pregnant. What is the main purpose of giving corticosteroids to this client?

A nurse is preparing to administer antihypertensive therapy to a client with severe pre-eclampsia. Which of the following blood pressure readings is the target goal for this client?

A nurse is performing a non-stress test (NST) for a client who is 34 weeks pregnant and has pre-eclampsia. Which of the following fetal heart rate patterns indicates a reactive test?

A nurse is preparing to administer hydralazine to a client with eclampsia who has a blood pressure of 180/120 mmHg.

What is the rationale for administering this medication?