A nurse is preparing to administer hydralazine to a client with eclampsia who has a blood pressure of 180/120 mmHg.
What is the rationale for administering this medication?
To prevent cerebral edema
To reduce uterine contractions
To increase placental perfusion
To promote diuresis
The Correct Answer is C
To increase placental perfusion.
Hydralazine is an antihypertensive drug that dilates the blood vessels and lowers the blood pressure. By doing so, it improves the blood flow to the placenta and reduces the risk of fetal hypoxia and growth restriction.
Choice A is wrong because hydralazine does not prevent cerebral edema.
Cerebral edema is a complication of severe preeclampsia or eclampsia that can cause seizures, headaches, and visual disturbances. Hydralazine may lower the blood pressure and reduce the risk of stroke, but it does not directly affect the brain swelling.
Choice B is wrong because hydralazine does not reduce uterine contractions.
Uterine contractions are stimulated by oxytocin and prostaglandins, which are not affected by hydralazine. Hydralazine may cause reflex tachycardia, which can increase the cardiac output and uterine blood flow, but it does not alter the uterine muscle activity.
Choice D is wrong because hydralazine does not promote diuresis.
Diuresis is the increased production of urine by the kidneys.
Hydralazine may cause fluid retention and edema by activating the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, which increases sodium and water reabsorption. Hydralazine may also cause a decrease in renal perfusion and glomerular filtration rate, which can impair the kidney function and urine output.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Two or more accelerations of at least 15 beats/min above baseline lasting for at least 15 seconds in a 20-minute period.This indicates a reactive test, which means that the fetus is well oxygenated and not in distress.
Choice B is wrong because no accelerations or decelerations in a 20-minute period indicate a non-reactive test, which may suggest fetal hypoxia or acidosis.
Choice C is wrong because one acceleration of at least 10 beats/min above baseline lasting for at least 10 seconds in a 20-minute period is the criterion for a reactive test for gestational age less than 32 weeks, not 34 weeks.
Choice D is wrong because variable decelerations with normal variability in a 20-minute period indicate cord compression or fetal head compression, not a reactive test.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
To accelerate fetal lung maturity.Corticosteroids are given to pregnant women with severe pre-eclampsia who are at risk of preterm delivery to help the development of the fetus’s lungs and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome.
This can improve the survival and health outcomes of the newborn.
Choice A is wrong because corticosteroids do not reduce inflammation in pre-eclampsia.They are used for other inflammatory conditions such as asthma or arthritis.
Choice B is wrong because corticosteroids do not prevent infection in pre-eclampsia.They can actually increase the risk of infection by suppressing the immune system.
Choice D is wrong because corticosteroids do not increase platelet count in pre-eclampsia.They can actually decrease the platelet count by causing thrombocytopenia.
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