A nurse is preparing to administer antihypertensive therapy to a client with severe pre-eclampsia.

Which of the following blood pressure readings is the target goal for this client?

<140/90 mmHg

<150/100 mmHg

<160/110 mmHg

<170/120 mmHg

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

The target blood pressure goal for a client with severe pre-eclampsia is less than 160/110 mmHg.

This is because lowering the blood pressure too much or too fast can compromise the placental perfusion and fetal oxygenation.

Choice A is wrong because it is the target blood pressure goal for a client with chronic hypertension or gestational hypertension without severe features.

Choice B is wrong because it is the target blood pressure goal for a client with mild pre-eclampsia.

Choice D is wrong because it is too high and can increase the risk of maternal and fetal complications such as stroke, eclampsia, placental abruption, and fetal growth restriction.

Normal blood pressure ranges are less than 120/80 mmHg for systolic and diastolic pressures respectively.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

To accelerate fetal lung maturity.Corticosteroids are given to pregnant women with severe pre-eclampsia who are at risk of preterm delivery to help the development of the fetus’s lungs and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome.

This can improve the survival and health outcomes of the newborn.

Choice A is wrong because corticosteroids do not reduce inflammation in pre-eclampsia.They are used for other inflammatory conditions such as asthma or arthritis.

Choice B is wrong because corticosteroids do not prevent infection in pre-eclampsia.They can actually increase the risk of infection by suppressing the immune system.

Choice D is wrong because corticosteroids do not increase platelet count in pre-eclampsia.They can actually decrease the platelet count by causing thrombocytopenia.

A. To prevent cerebral edema B. To reduce uterine contractions C. To increase placental perfusion D. To promote diuresis

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

To increase placental perfusion.

Hydralazine is an antihypertensive drug that dilates the blood vessels and lowers the blood pressure.By doing so, it improves the blood flow to the placenta and reduces the risk of fetal hypoxia and growth restriction.

Choice A is wrong because hydralazine does not prevent cerebral edema.

Cerebral edema is a complication of severe preeclampsia or eclampsia that can cause seizures, headaches, and visual disturbances.Hydralazine may lower the blood pressure and reduce the risk of stroke, but it does not directly affect the brain swelling.

Choice B is wrong because hydralazine does not reduce uterine contractions.

Uterine contractions are stimulated by oxytocin and prostaglandins, which are not affected by hydralazine.Hydralazine may cause reflex tachycardia, which can increase the cardiac output and uterine blood flow, but it does not alter the uterine muscle activity.

Choice D is wrong because hydralazine does not promote diuresis.

Diuresis is the increased production of urine by the kidneys.

Hydralazine may cause fluid retention and edema by activating the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, which increases sodium and water reabsorption.Hydralazine may also cause a decrease in renal perfusion and glomerular filtration rate, which can impair the kidney function and urine output.

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A nurse is preparing to administer antihypertensive therapy to a client with severe pre-eclampsia. Which of the following blood pressure readings is the target goal for this client?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is administering corticosteroids to a client with severe pre-eclampsia who is 32 weeks pregnant. What is the main purpose of giving corticosteroids to this client?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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A nurse is preparing to administer antihypertensive therapy to a client with severe pre-eclampsia.

Which of the following blood pressure readings is the target goal for this client?