A nurse is planning care for a patient who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth. The patient has a history of thromboembolic disease.Which nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?
Place pillows under the patient’s knees when resting in bed.
Massage the patient’s posterior lower legs.
Apply warm, moist heat to the patient’s lower extremities.
Have the patient ambulate.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Placing pillows under the patient’s knees when resting in bed can actually increase the risk of thromboembolic disease by slowing blood flow and promoting clot formation.
Choice B rationale
Massaging the patient’s posterior lower legs is not recommended, especially if the patient is showing signs of a possible deep vein thrombosis (DVT), as it could dislodge a clot.
Choice C rationale
Applying warm, moist heat to the patient’s lower extremities is not typically recommended as a primary intervention for patients with a history of thromboembolic disease.
Choice D rationale
Having the patient ambulate can help prevent the formation of blood clots by promoting blood circulation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) is an antibiotic that is often used to treat bacterial infections, but it is not typically the first line of treatment for herpes.
Choice B rationale
Penicillin G intravenously is a type of antibiotic that is often used to treat bacterial infections. However, herpes is a viral infection, and antibiotics are not effective against viruses.
Choice C rationale
Acyclovir is an antiviral medication that is commonly used to treat herpes infections. It works by slowing the growth and spread of the herpes virus in the body. This would be the most appropriate treatment for a patient presenting with symptoms of a herpes outbreak.
Choice D rationale
Betamethasone is a type of corticosteroid that is often used to reduce inflammation. While it might help to reduce some of the inflammation and discomfort associated with herpes lesions, it would not address the underlying viral infection.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Fundus at umbilicus is expected 4 hours postpartum, indicating normal uterine involution. No abnormal bleeding or uterine atony is implied, so it’s not a priority concern.
Choice B rationale: Deep tendon reflexes 4+ are hyperactive and signal increased neuromuscular irritability, placing the client at high risk for seizures due to preeclampsia. Immediate magnesium sulfate therapy may be required.
Choice C rationale: Saturated pad in 30 minutes suggests heavy lochia but is not yet classified as hemorrhage. Requires monitoring, but seizure risk from preeclampsia is more immediately life-threatening.
Choice D rationale: Approximated episiotomy edges indicate proper healing and no infection or dehiscence. This is a normal finding and does not require urgent intervention.
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