A nurse is planning care for a group of clients and is working with one licensed practical nurse (LPN) and one assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following actions should the nurse take first to manage her time effectively?
Schedule daily activities.
Determine goals of the day.
Delegate tasks to the AP.
Develop an hourly time frame for tasks.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is: b. Determine goals of the day.
Choice A: Schedule daily activities.
Rationale: Scheduling daily activities is crucial for time management but should follow establishing goals. The nurse must first determine the priorities and objectives for the day before organizing the tasks.
Choice B: Determine goals of the day.
Rationale: Identifying the goals of the day is the first step in effective time management for a nurse. This enables the nurse to prioritize patient care and other responsibilities, ensuring that essential tasks are accomplished and patient needs are met. Goals can include completing assessments, administering medications, and attending to patient concerns.
Choice C: Delegate tasks to the AP.
Rationale: Delegating tasks is vital in managing time and resources, but it should occur after the goals and priorities are determined. The nurse must first know which tasks need to be completed before assigning responsibilities to the LPN and AP.
Choice D: Develop an hourly time frame for tasks.
Rationale: Creating a timeline for tasks is essential for time management but should be done after setting goals and prioritizing tasks. This will enable the nurse to allocate an appropriate amount of time for each task and help ensure that all necessary tasks are completed within the shift.
In conclusion, by first determining the goals of the day, the nurse can effectively manage time and ensure that all essential tasks are completed. Prioritizing patient care and other responsibilities will enable the nurse to collaborate effectively with the LPN and AP in delegating tasks and scheduling activities.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Diazepam (Valium) is not the correct choice in this situation. Diazepam is a sedative and muscle relaxant but would not address the respiratory depression caused by hydromorphone. The client's respiratory rate of 10/min indicates a potential opioid overdose, and the appropriate intervention is to administer naloxone to reverse the opioid effects.
Choice B rationale:
Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is not the correct choice in this scenario. Acetaminophen is a pain reliever and fever reducer but would not address the respiratory depression caused by hydromorphone. The priority is to address the respiratory depression promptly with naloxone.
Choice C rationale:
Ibuprofen (Advil) is not the correct choice in this situation. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used for pain and inflammation but is not appropriate for reversing opioid-induced respiratory depression. Naloxone is the drug of choice to reverse opioid overdose in this case.
Choice D rationale:
Naloxone (Narcan) is the correct choice. Naloxone is an opioid receptor antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose, including respiratory depression. Given the client's low respiratory rate, naloxone should be administered promptly to counteract the effects of hydromorphone. This is the most appropriate and potentially life-saving intervention for this client.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Evaluating the fetal heart rate tracing is the most critical action in this scenario. The client is at 31 weeks of gestation and reports decreased fetal movement, which could indicate fetal distress. The nurse should first assess the fetal heart rate tracing to ensure the fetus is not in distress. Normal fetal heart rate is between 110 and 160 beats per minute.
Choice B rationale: Obtaining a 24-hour urine collection is important for assessing proteinuria, a sign of preeclampsia, but it is not the most immediate concern. The nurse can initiate this after ensuring the fetus is not in distress.
Choice C rationale: Administering acetaminophen PO (by mouth) can help relieve the client’s headache, but it is not the most immediate concern. The nurse can administer this medication after ensuring the fetus is not in distress and initiating other prescribed treatments.
Choice D rationale: Administering magnesium sulfate IV (intravenously) can prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia. However, before administering this medication, the nurse should ensure that the fetus is not in distress.
Choice E rationale: Administering betamethasone IM (intramuscularly) can help accelerate fetal lung maturity in case of preterm labor. However, before administering this medication, the nurse should ensure that the fetus is not in distress.
Choice F rationale: Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter can help monitor urine output, which is important for clients receiving magnesium sulfate because oliguria can be a sign of magnesium toxicity. However, before inserting the catheter, the nurse should ensure that the fetus is not in distress.
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