A nurse is planning care for a group of clients and is working with one licensed practical nurse (LPN) and one assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following actions should the nurse take first to manage her time effectively?

Schedule daily activities.

Determine goals of the day.

Delegate tasks to the AP.

Develop an hourly time frame for tasks.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

The correct answer is: b. Determine goals of the day.

Choice A: Schedule daily activities.

Rationale: Scheduling daily activities is crucial for time management but should follow establishing goals. The nurse must first determine the priorities and objectives for the day before organizing the tasks.

Choice B: Determine goals of the day.

Rationale: Identifying the goals of the day is the first step in effective time management for a nurse. This enables the nurse to prioritize patient care and other responsibilities, ensuring that essential tasks are accomplished and patient needs are met. Goals can include completing assessments, administering medications, and attending to patient concerns.

Choice C: Delegate tasks to the AP.

Rationale: Delegating tasks is vital in managing time and resources, but it should occur after the goals and priorities are determined. The nurse must first know which tasks need to be completed before assigning responsibilities to the LPN and AP.

Choice D: Develop an hourly time frame for tasks.

Rationale: Creating a timeline for tasks is essential for time management but should be done after setting goals and prioritizing tasks. This will enable the nurse to allocate an appropriate amount of time for each task and help ensure that all necessary tasks are completed within the shift.

In conclusion, by first determining the goals of the day, the nurse can effectively manage time and ensure that all essential tasks are completed. Prioritizing patient care and other responsibilities will enable the nurse to collaborate effectively with the LPN and AP in delegating tasks and scheduling activities.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Weight gain is a common side effect of many antipsychotic medications, including haloperidol. While it is important to monitor for this adverse effect, it is not specifically related to the extrapyramidal symptoms associated with haloperidol use.

Choice B rationale:

Dry mouth is a common anticholinergic side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Although it is important to monitor for this adverse effect, it is not specifically related to the extrapyramidal symptoms, such as parkinsonism, associated with haloperidol use.

Choice C rationale:

This is the correct answer. Shuffling gait, or parkinsonism, is an extrapyramidal symptom associated with the use of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. It is a movement disorder characterized by a shuffling walk, rigidity, and tremors. Recognizing and reporting this symptom promptly is crucial, as it may indicate the development of a serious neurological condition called tardive dyskinesia.

Choice D rationale:

Sedation is a common side effect of haloperidol and other antipsychotic medications. While it is important to monitor for sedation, it is not specifically related to the extrapyramidal symptoms associated with haloperidol use, as described in choice C.

A. Diazepam B. Acetaminophen. C. Ibuprofen. D. Naloxone.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Diazepam (Valium) is not the correct choice in this situation. Diazepam is a sedative and muscle relaxant but would not address the respiratory depression caused by hydromorphone. The client's respiratory rate of 10/min indicates a potential opioid overdose, and the appropriate intervention is to administer naloxone to reverse the opioid effects.

Choice B rationale:

Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is not the correct choice in this scenario. Acetaminophen is a pain reliever and fever reducer but would not address the respiratory depression caused by hydromorphone. The priority is to address the respiratory depression promptly with naloxone.

Choice C rationale:

Ibuprofen (Advil) is not the correct choice in this situation. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used for pain and inflammation but is not appropriate for reversing opioid-induced respiratory depression. Naloxone is the drug of choice to reverse opioid overdose in this case.

Choice D rationale:

Naloxone (Narcan) is the correct choice. Naloxone is an opioid receptor antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose, including respiratory depression. Given the client's low respiratory rate, naloxone should be administered promptly to counteract the effects of hydromorphone. This is the most appropriate and potentially life-saving intervention for this client.

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A nurse is planning care for a group of clients and is working with one licensed practical nurse (LPN) and one assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following actions should the nurse take first to manage her time effectively?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for haloperidol.Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is assessing a client who received hydromorphone 4 mg IV 15 min ago.The client has a respiratory rate of 10/min.The nurse should prepare to administer which of the following medications? .

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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