A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving morphine via continuous epidural infusion. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
Pruritus
Gastric bleeding
Tachypnea
Cough
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Pruritus, or itching, is a common adverse effect of opioid medications like morphine.
Choice B rationale:
Gastric bleeding is not a typical adverse effect of morphine administered via epidural infusion.
Choice C rationale:
Tachypnea, or rapid breathing, is not a common adverse effect of morphine. It's more commonly associated with opioid overdose.
Choice D rationale:
Cough is not a prominent adverse effect of morphine administered via epidural infusion.
Nursing Test Bank
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Alopecia (hair loss) is not a common adverse effect of paroxetine.
Choice B rationale:
Drowsiness is a potential adverse effect of paroxetine, an antidepressant medication that can cause central nervous system effects.
Choice C rationale:
Tinnitus (ringing in the ears) is not commonly associated with paroxetine use.
Choice D rationale:
Peripheral edema is not a common adverse effect of paroxetine.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Testing negative for HIV does not mean that the client is taking the antibiotics as prescribed. HIV is a virus that weakens the immune system and makes people more susceptible to tuberculosis, but it is not related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis.
Choice B rationale:
having a positive purified protein derivative test does not mean that the client is taking the antibiotics as prescribed. A purified protein derivative test is a skin test that checks for exposure to tuberculosis bacteria, but it does not measure the effectiveness of the medication regimen. A positive test means that the client has been exposed to tuberculosis bacteria at some point in their life, but it does not mean that they have an active infection or that they are taking the antibiotics as prescribed.
Choice C rationale:
The client has a negative sputum culture. A sputum culture is a test that checks for the presence of tuberculosis bacteria in the mucus that is coughed up from the lungs. A negative sputum culture means that the bacteria are no longer detectable and that the medication regimen is effective. A positive sputum culture means that the bacteria are still present and that the medication regimen may need to be adjusted.
Choice D rationale:
Having normal liver function test results does not mean that the client is taking the antibiotics as prescribed. Liver function tests are blood tests that check for damage to the liver caused by medications or other factors. Isoniazid and rifampin can cause liver damage, so the nurse should monitor the client's liver function tests regularly to prevent or detect any problems. However, having normal liver function test results does not mean that the client is taking the antibiotics as prescribed or that the medication regimen is effective.
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