A nurse is planning care for a child who has severe diarrhea.
Which of the following actions is the nurse’s priority?
Introduce a regular diet
Maintain fluid therapy
Rehydrate
Assess fluid balance
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice D.
Choice A rationale:
Introducing a regular diet is not the immediate priority for a child with severe diarrhea. The focus should be on stabilizing the child’s condition before reintroducing regular foods.
Choice B rationale:
Maintaining fluid therapy is important, but it is part of the broader goal of managing fluid balance. It is not the first step in addressing severe diarrhea.
Choice C rationale:
Rehydration is crucial, but it falls under the broader category of assessing and managing fluid balance. Ensuring the child is properly hydrated is part of the overall assessment.
Choice D rationale:
Assessing fluid balance is the priority action. This involves evaluating the child’s hydration status, monitoring for signs of dehydration, and ensuring that fluid therapy is appropriately managed. This step is critical to prevent complications from severe diarrhea.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Dark-colored urine is a common symptom of dehydration. When a person is dehydrated, their kidneys try to conserve water by concentrating the urine, which can make it appear darker. Choice B rationale
High blood pressure is not typically associated with dehydration. In fact, dehydration can sometimes lead to low blood pressure due to a decrease in blood volume.
Choice C rationale
Distended neck veins are not typically a symptom of dehydration. They are more commonly associated with conditions that cause fluid overload, such as heart failure.
Choice D rationale
Moist skin is not typically a symptom of dehydration. In fact, one of the symptoms of severe dehydration can be dry, cool skin.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Platelet count is not the primary diagnostic test used to monitor the therapy’s effect of warfarin. Platelets are involved in the clotting process, but warfarin specifically works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which does not directly involve platelets.
Choice B rationale
The white blood cell count (WBC) is not used to monitor the effect of warfarin therapy. WBC is typically used to monitor for infection or inflammation, not the coagulation status of a patient.
Choice C rationale
Prothrombin time (PT) is the correct answer. Warfarin therapy is monitored using the PT, which is reported as the International Normalized Ratio (INR). Warfarin inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which include Factors II, VII, IX, and X, and Proteins C and S. The PT/INR is sensitive to changes in these factors. An elevated INR indicates a higher risk of bleeding, while a lower INR suggests a higher risk of clotting.
Choice D rationale
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy. The aPTT test evaluates the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which includes factors XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II (prothrombin), and I (fibrinogen). Warfarin affects the extrinsic pathway and common pathway, not the intrinsic pathway. Therefore, aPTT is not the best test to monitor the effects of warfarin.
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