A nurse is monitoring the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?
PT 11 seconds
APTT 50 seconds
Hematocrit 456
Platelets 300,000/mm²
The Correct Answer is C
A.PT (Prothrombin Time) 11 seconds: The prothrombin time measures the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. A PT of 11 seconds is within the normal range, and it indicates that the extrinsic clotting pathway is functioning appropriately. There is no need to report this value.
B. APTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) 50 seconds: The APTT measures the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. A value of 50 seconds is prolonged and may suggest that the client is receiving an effective anticoagulant dose. However, the APTT target range can vary based on the specific therapeutic goal and the heparin protocol in use. It's essential to follow the healthcare provider's guidance on the target APTT range.
C. Hematocrit 456: The normal range for hematocrit is usually expressed as a percentage. A value of 456 is outside the normal range and likely represents an error or a misinterpretation. The nurse should verify this value, as an extremely high hematocrit could be indicative of an issue such as dehydration or an analytical error.
D. Platelets 300,000/mm²: A platelet count of 300,000/mm² is within the normal range. There is no need to report this value as it suggests a normal platelet count.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. "If I were you, I would get the vaccine to keep my family safe:"
This statement imposes the nurse's personal opinion on the client and may not respect the client's autonomy and decision-making.
B. "Influenza can be very serious to anyone who does not receive the vaccine:"
While this statement conveys the seriousness of influenza, it may be perceived as coercive or fear-inducing. It is important to provide information without pressure.
C. "The influenza vaccine is mandatory for all clients before discharge, so you will need to sign an against medical advice form:"
This statement is not accurate and may create unnecessary tension. Influenza vaccination is generally not mandatory, and clients have the right to decline without being labeled against medical advice for this particular vaccination.
D. "The influenza vaccine is strongly encouraged, but I understand you would like to decline right now:"
This is the correct answer. It acknowledges the client's decision to decline the vaccine while expressing that the vaccine is encouraged. It respects the client's autonomy and allows for open communication about the decision.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Bone loss:
This is the correct answer. Long-term use of corticosteroids, such as prednisone, is associated with an increased risk of osteoporosis and bone loss. This effect is particularly significant in older adults.
B. Hypoglycemia:
Prednisone is more likely to cause hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) rather than hypoglycemia. It can lead to insulin resistance and impaired glucose metabolism.
C. Liver toxicity:
Liver toxicity is not a common adverse effect of prednisone. Prednisone is metabolized in the liver, but significant liver toxicity is not a typical concern with its use.
D. Hemolytic anemia:
Hemolytic anemia is not a common adverse effect of prednisone. Corticosteroids can affect the immune system, but hemolytic anemia is not a typical manifestation.
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