A nurse is measuring the fundal height of a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation. The client suddenly reports nausea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Administer propranolol IV to the client
Position the client on her side.
Ask the client to increase her daily calcium intake.
Use Leopold maneuvers to determine the fetal position.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Administer propranolol IV to the client: Propranolol is a beta-blocker used to treat hypertension and certain cardiac conditions. It is not indicated for sudden nausea during pregnancy and could be harmful if administered without cause.
B. Position the client on her side: At 36 weeks, the gravid uterus can compress the inferior vena cava when the client lies flat, reducing venous return and causing supine hypotensive syndrome, which often presents as nausea. Turning the client to her side relieves pressure and restores circulation.
C. Ask the client to increase her daily calcium intake: Calcium is important during pregnancy, especially for bone health, but increasing intake is not an acute intervention for nausea caused by positional blood flow issues.
D. Use Leopold maneuvers to determine the fetal position: Leopold maneuvers assess fetal position but do not address the client’s immediate symptom of nausea, which may indicate compromised circulation from lying supine. Position change is the priority action.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Esophagitis: Esophagitis is not a common manifestation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). It is more often associated with gastroesophageal conditions or certain medications rather than autoimmune flare-ups.
B. Fever: Fever is a common finding during an acute exacerbation of SLE, reflecting the inflammatory nature of the autoimmune response and potential systemic involvement, such as joint pain or organ inflammation.
C. Diplopia: Diplopia, or double vision, is more associated with neurological conditions like multiple sclerosis rather than SLE, which more commonly affects joints, skin, and internal organs.
D. Bradykinesia: Bradykinesia is characteristic of Parkinson’s disease and other movement disorders, not typically seen in clients experiencing an SLE flare.
Correct Answer is ["C","D","E","F","G"]
Explanation
Rationale for Correct Choices:
- DTR 2+ bilaterally: The deep tendon reflexes improved from 1+ earlier (indicating possible magnesium toxicity) to 2+, which falls within the normal range of 1+ to 3+. This suggests better neuromuscular function and reduced magnesium side effects.
- Urine output 40 mL/hr: Increased from a low 20 mL/hr at 1400 to 40 mL/hr at 1800, above the normal minimum urine output (>30 mL/hr). This reflects improved renal perfusion and fluid balance, crucial for preventing complications in preeclampsia.
- Oxygen saturation 95% on 2 L nasal cannula: Oxygen saturation stabilized at 95%, which is the lower limit of normal (95–100%). Previously it was 92% on room air, indicating improved oxygenation with supplemental oxygen support.
- Respiratory rate 18/min: Improved from shallow respirations at 14/min to 18/min, which falls within the normal adult range (12–20/min). This indicates better respiratory effort and gas exchange.
- Blood pressure 146/96 mm Hg: Decreased from a hypertensive crisis level of 170/112 mm Hg at 1400 to 146/96 mm Hg, showing effective blood pressure management though still above the ideal (<120/80 mm Hg). This reduction lowers the risk of severe complications.
Rationale for Incorrect Choices:
- Temperature 38.3° C (101° F): Elevated above the normal range (36.5–37.5° C), this fever suggests possible infection or inflammatory response and does not represent clinical improvement. It requires further evaluation and treatment.
- Heart rate 58/min: Decreased from 80/min to 58/min, falling below the normal range of 60–100/min. This bradycardia may be a sign of magnesium toxicity or cardiovascular suppression and requires close monitoring.
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