A nurse is educating a client who is newly prescribed scopolamine (Scopace) patches for treating motion sickness. Which of the following client statements indicate to the nurse that the teaching has been effective? (Select All That Apply.).
(Select All that Apply.)
"I should apply this patch behind my ear."
"This patch should be replaced every 7 days."
"I should not use a second patch if the initial patch is ineffective."
"Before putting on my patch, I should wipe the area with an alcohol swab."
Correct Answer : A,C
A. "I should apply this patch behind my ear.": This is correct because the scopolamine patch is designed to be applied behind the ear, where it can effectively deliver medication through the skin.
B. "This patch should be replaced every 7 days.": This is incorrect because the scopolamine patch should be replaced every 72 hours (3 days), not every 7 days.
C. "I should not use a second patch if the initial patch is ineffective.": This is correct because using more than one patch at a time can lead to an overdose of the medication, which can cause serious side effects.
D. "Before putting on my patch, I should wipe the area with an alcohol swab.": This is incorrect because using an alcohol swab can irritate the skin and affect the absorption of the medication. The area should be clean and dry, but not cleaned with alcohol.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Regular insulin – This is incorrect. Regular insulin would exacerbate hypoglycemia since it lowers blood glucose levels. Administering insulin in this scenario would worsen the client's condition.
B. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) – This is incorrect. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine and has no role in treating hypoglycemia or insulin toxicity.
C. Metformin (Glucophage) – This is incorrect. Metformin is an oral hypoglycemic agent and is not suitable for immediate treatment of insulin-induced hypoglycemia.
D. Glucagon (GlucaGen) – This is correct. Glucagon raises blood glucose by promoting glycogen breakdown in the liver and is the treatment of choice for severe hypoglycemia in clients unable to swallow or follow commands.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Hyperglycemia: While metformin is used to manage blood glucose levels in clients with diabetes, its interaction with contrast dye does not directly lead to hyperglycemia. However, the risk for kidney injury, which can affect glucose regulation, is a concern.
B. Acute renal failure: This is correct. The combination of metformin and iodine-containing contrast dye increases the risk of acute renal failure, also known as contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN). This occurs because contrast agents can cause kidney damage, and metformin is excreted by the kidneys. If renal function is impaired, the buildup of metformin can lead to lactic acidosis.
C. Acute pancreatitis: While acute pancreatitis is a possible side effect of metformin in some individuals, the primary concern with iodine-containing contrast dye is renal failure, not pancreatitis.
D. Acute liver failure: Metformin is primarily metabolized by the kidneys, not the liver, and does not commonly cause liver failure. Renal failure is the more pressing concern with the use of contrast dye in clients taking metformin.
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