A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has Meniere’s disease. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?
Pantoprazole
Warfarin
Furosemide
Oxybutynin
The Correct Answer is C
Pantoprazole: Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor commonly used to reduce stomach acid production. It is primarily indicated for the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), peptic ulcers, and other conditions related to excessive stomach acid production. It does not play a role in managing Meniere's disease, which is a disorder of the inner ear characterized by episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss.
B) Warfarin: Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clot formation. It is commonly prescribed for conditions such as atrial fibrillation, deep vein thrombosis, and pulmonary embolism. Meniere's disease does not typically require anticoagulant therapy, so warfarin would not be indicated for its treatment.
C) Furosemide: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that helps reduce fluid retention by increasing urine output. In some cases of Meniere's disease, especially those associated with excessive endolymphatic fluid buildup in the inner ear, furosemide may be prescribed to help reduce fluid volume and alleviate symptoms such as vertigo and pressure sensation in the ear.
D) Oxybutynin: Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication primarily used to treat overactive bladder and urinary incontinence. It works by relaxing smooth muscle in the bladder, reducing bladder spasms and urinary urgency. While some individuals with Meniere's disease may experience associated symptoms such as frequent urination or urinary urgency, oxybutynin is not a standard treatment for Meniere's disease itself.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The client develops bradycardia and bradypnea: Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and bradypnea (slow breathing rate) may indicate a slowing down of bodily functions but are not typical manifestations of postoperative shock. In postoperative shock, the body's compensatory mechanisms often lead to tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and tachypnea (rapid breathing rate) as the body tries to maintain perfusion.
B. The client has metabolic alkalosis and warm extremities: Metabolic alkalosis and warm extremities are not typically associated with postoperative shock. In shock, metabolic acidosis is more common due to tissue hypoperfusion, and extremities may become cool due to peripheral vasoconstriction as the body attempts to shunt blood to vital organs.
C. The client has hypertension and anuria: Hypertension (high blood pressure) and anuria (lack of urine output) are not indicative of postoperative shock. In shock, blood pressure typically decreases (hypotension), and oliguria or anuria may occur due to decreased renal perfusion.
D. The client has hypotension and is confused: This is the correct answer. Hypotension (low blood pressure) is a hallmark sign of shock, indicating inadequate tissue perfusion. Confusion may occur due to cerebral hypoperfusion and inadequate oxygen delivery to the brain. Confusion is a late sign of shock and indicates severe compromise of organ perfusion.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. "Vision changes occur when the retina begins to breakdown and collect bits of debris": This statement does not accurately describe the changes that occur in the eye during retinal detachment. Vision changes in retinal detachment primarily occur due to the separation of the retina from its underlying tissue layers, rather than the breakdown and collection of debris within the retina.
B. "Vision changes occur when retinal tissue pulls away from the blood vessels in the eye": Retinal detachment occurs when the retina, which is the light-sensitive layer at the back of the eye, pulls away from its normal position along the inner wall of the eye. This separation disrupts the blood supply to the retina, leading to vision changes. The most common symptom of retinal detachment is the sudden appearance of floaters or flashes of light in the visual field, followed by a shadow or curtain effect as the detachment progresses. Therefore, this statement accurately describes the pathophysiological mechanism underlying vision changes in retinal detachment.
C. "Vision changes occur when the cloudy lens alters the passage of light through the eye": This statement describes changes associated with cataracts, not retinal detachment. Cataracts involve clouding of the lens inside the eye, which can lead to vision changes such as blurriness or decreased visual acuity. However, cataracts are distinct from retinal detachment, which involves the separation of the retina from the inner wall of the eye.
D. "Vision changes occur suddenly due to complete obstruction of aqueous humor outflow": This statement describes the pathophysiology of acute angle-closure glaucoma, not retinal detachment. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is characterized by sudden elevation of intraocular pressure due to complete obstruction of the outflow of aqueous humor, leading to rapid onset of symptoms such as severe eye pain, blurred vision, and halos around lights. Retinal detachment, on the other hand, is characterized by the separation of the retina from its normal position, resulting in distinct vision changes such as floaters, flashes of light, and visual field defects.
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