A nurse is counseling a client who is to undergo enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) testing for HIV. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
The test monitors the progression of the disease
The test measures antibodies to the virus
The test results are accurate 24 hours after exposure to the virus
A positive result requires initiating immunoglobulin administration
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: The test does not monitor the progression of the disease, as it only detects the presence of antibodies to HIV, not the amount of virus or the damage to the immune system. Other tests, such as viral load and CD4 count, are used to monitor the progression of HIV infection and the response to treatment.
Choice B reason: The test measures antibodies to the virus, which are produced by the immune system in response to HIV infection. The test is used to screen for HIV infection and to confirm the diagnosis. A positive result indicates that the person has been exposed to HIV and has developed antibodies to the virus.
Choice C reason: The test results are not accurate 24 hours after exposure to the virus, as it takes time for the body to produce enough antibodies to be detected by the test. The window period, which is the time between exposure to HIV and a positive test result, varies from person to person, but it can range from 3 weeks to 3 months. Therefore, a negative result does not necessarily rule out HIV infection, and a repeat test may be needed after the window period.
Choice D reason: A positive result does not require initiating immunoglobulin administration, as immunoglobulin is not a treatment for HIV infection. Immunoglobulin is a preparation of antibodies that can provide temporary protection against some infections, but it does not affect HIV. A positive result requires further confirmation by a more specific test, such as the Western blot, and referral to a specialist for treatment and counseling.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: A client who has superficial partial-thickness burn injuries over 5% of his body is not the highest priority for treatment. This type of burn injury affects only the epidermis and the upper layer of the dermis, and causes pain, redness, and blisters. The client may need fluid replacement, pain management, and wound care, but is not in immediate danger of life-threatening complications.
Choice B reason: A client who has a femur fracture with a 2+ pedal pulse is not the highest priority for treatment. This type of fracture involves the breakage of the thigh bone, which is the largest and strongest bone in the body. The client may experience severe pain, swelling, deformity, and bleeding. A 2+ pedal pulse indicates that the blood flow to the lower extremity is adequate, but not optimal. The client may need immobilization, traction, surgery, and infection prevention, but is not in immediate danger of life-threatening complications.
Choice C reason: A client who is ambulatory and exhibits manic behavior is not the highest priority for treatment. This type of behavior involves a state of elevated mood, energy, and activity, which may be caused by stress, trauma, or a mental disorder. The client may experience euphoria, irritability, impulsivity, and poor judgment. The client may need psychological support, medication, and safety measures, but is not in immediate danger of life-threatening complications.
Choice D reason: A client who has a rigid abdomen with manifestations of shock is the highest priority for treatment. This type of condition involves a severe injury to the abdominal organs, such as the liver, spleen, or intestines, which may cause internal bleeding, inflammation, and infection. The client may experience pain, tenderness, distension, and guarding of the abdomen, as well as signs of shock, such as hypotension, tachycardia, pallor, and confusion. The client may need fluid resuscitation, blood transfusion, surgery, and antibiotics, and is in immediate danger of life-threatening complications.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: This comment does not indicate rationalization, but rather a recognition of the consequences of obesity. The client may be expressing a need for help or motivation to change their lifestyle.
Choice B reason: This comment indicates rationalization, which is a defense mechanism that involves making excuses or justifying one's behavior or situation. The client may be avoiding personal responsibility or denying the possibility of change by blaming their obesity on their genes.
Choice C reason: This comment does not indicate rationalization, but rather a challenge or barrier that the client faces in achieving their health goals. The client may be acknowledging their weakness or seeking support to overcome their temptation.
Choice D reason: This comment does not indicate rationalization, but rather a projection or displacement of the client's negative feelings onto others. The client may be feeling insecure or rejected because of their obesity, and assuming that others share the same opinion.
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