A nurse is counseling a client for the management of anxiety.
The client is consistently late for appointments and ignores household chores. The client states, "I'm just too stressed.
I need someone to take care of me." The nurse identifies this behavior as an example of which of the following defense mechanisms?

Dissociation

Regression

Introjection

Repression.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale: Dissociation is a defense mechanism where a person disconnects from reality, memory, identity, or perception. It is often a response to trauma and can result in a detachment from emotional and physical experiences. The client’s behavior does not indicate a disconnection from reality or self.

Choice B rationale: Regression is a defense mechanism where an individual reverts to an earlier stage of development in response to stress or anxiety. In this case, the client’s behavior of wanting someone to take care of them can be seen as a regression to a childlike state of dependency, which is a common response to overwhelming stress or anxiety.

Choice C rationale: Introjection is a defense mechanism where a person internalizes the ideas or voices of other people- often authority figures. This is not evident in the client’s behavior.

Choice D rationale: Repression is a defense mechanism where a person unconsciously blocks out distressing thoughts or feelings. In this scenario, the client is expressing their feelings of stress rather than repressing them.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["A","E","G"]

Explanation

The correct answer/s is Choice/s A, E, and G.

Choice A rationale: Administering 0.9% sodium chloride IV is a common practice in emergency departments to ensure the patient is well-hydrated. This is particularly important for patients experiencing acute mania, as they may have neglected their physical health, including hydration, during their manic episode.

Choice B rationale: Flumazenil is an antagonist for benzodiazepines and is typically used to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines. It is not typically used in the treatment of bipolar disorder or acute mania.

Choice C rationale: Preparing the client for intubation is usually reserved for situations where the patient is unable to maintain their own airway or adequate ventilation. This is not typically necessary in cases of acute mania unless there are other complicating factors.

Choice D rationale: Beginning chest compressions is a response to cardiac arrest. There is no indication in the that the patient is experiencing cardiac arrest, so this would not be a typical anticipation for a patient experiencing acute mania.

Choice E rationale: Administering IV naloxone is done in cases of suspected opioid overdose. While it’s not directly related to treating acute mania, it’s possible that the patient could have comorbid substance use issues, given the high rate of comorbidity between bipolar disorder and substance use disorders.

Choice F rationale: Administering activated charcoal is done in cases of certain types of poisoning or drug overdose. It is not typically used in the treatment of bipolar disorder or acute mania.

Choice G rationale: Preparing the client for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) could be an appropriate anticipation for a patient experiencing acute mania. ECT is considered a highly effective treatment for severe mania, particularly when other treatments have failed or when rapid stabilization is required.

Correct Answer is ["15"]

Explanation

Question: How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

Step 1: 150 mg ÷ 50 mg

Step 2: 3 × 5 mL

Answer: 15 mL per dose.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department (ED). The client comes to the ED via ambulance. The client has a history of bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. Select the 3 prescriptions that the nurse should anticipate for this client.

Correct Answer is ["A","E","G"]

Explanation

A nurse is preparing to administer amantadine 150 mg PO every 12 hr. The available medication is amantadine 50 mg/5 mL syrup. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

Correct Answer is ["15"]

Explanation

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