A nurse is completing discharge teaching with a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin to treat unstable angina. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
"Administer this medication into your leg muscle.".
"Expel the excess air in the syringe before you administer the medication.".
"Insert the entire needle into your skin to administer medication completely.".
"Take ibuprofen for fever following administration of this medication.".
None
None
The Correct Answer is C
Answer: C. "Insert the entire needle into your skin to administer medication completely."
Rationale:
A) "Administer this medication into your leg muscle."
Enoxaparin should be administered subcutaneously, typically in the abdominal area, not into a muscle. Injecting it intramuscularly can lead to unpredictable absorption and increase the risk of bleeding.
B) "Expel the excess air in the syringe before you administer the medication."
This statement is incorrect. For enoxaparin, it is recommended to retain the air bubble in the syringe. The air bubble helps ensure the entire dose is delivered and minimizes leakage at the injection site.
C) "Insert the entire needle into your skin to administer medication completely."
This is an appropriate instruction as it emphasizes the need to fully insert the needle for effective subcutaneous delivery of enoxaparin. Proper technique is essential to ensure the medication is administered as intended.
D) "Take ibuprofen for fever following administration of this medication."
This recommendation is not advisable because ibuprofen, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), can increase the risk of bleeding, especially when taken concurrently with enoxaparin. The client should consult their healthcare provider for safe alternatives for managing fever or pain.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
An elevated white blood cell (WBC) count is an expected manifestation in a client with suspected appendicitis. Inflammation in the appendix leads to an immune response, causing an increase in WBC count.
Choice B rationale:
Elevated amylase level is not typically associated with appendicitis. Elevated amylase is more commonly seen in pancreatitis, not appendicitis.
Choice C rationale:
Rebound tenderness, which refers to increased pain when pressure is released rather than applied, is a classic symptom of appendicitis. The nurse should expect to find rebound tenderness during the abdominal assessment.
Choice D rationale:
Ascites are not a common manifestation of appendicitis. Ascites is the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity and are more commonly seen in liver cirrhosis and certain other conditions, but not in appendicitis.
Choice E rationale:
Anorexia, or loss of appetite, can be seen in clients with appendicitis due to the inflammation and discomfort in the abdominal region.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Testicular cancer may present as a painless lump or swelling in the testicle. It's important for the client to monitor for any new or unusual lumps, as they could be indicative of cancer.
Choice B rationale:
A decreased size of the testicle is not a typical manifestation of testicular cancer. It is more commonly associated with conditions like testicular atrophy due to other causes.
Choice C rationale:
Asymmetry in the position of the testicles, with one testicle descending lower than the other, is a normal variation and not a sign of testicular cancer.
Choice D rationale:
Dilated veins above the testicle can be a sign of a varicocele, which is a separate condition from testicular cancer. It is caused by abnormal enlargement of veins in the scrotum and is generally not associated with cancer.
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