A nurse is completing an incident report regarding a medication error. Which of the following team members should the nurse report the incident to first?
Nursing supervisor
Agency administration
Client's provider
The Correct Answer is C
A medication error is an adverse event that necessitates immediate clinical and administrative action to ensure patient safety. The primary goal following an error is to assess the client for physiological instability and implement corrective treatments. Transparent communication with the healthcare team is essential for mitigating harm and documenting the event for future quality improvement initiatives.
Rationale:
A. The nursing supervisor should be notified as part of the facility's internal administrative process, but this is not the most immediate priority. While the supervisor oversees the unit's safety protocols, they cannot provide the medical orders necessary to treat a potential adverse reaction. Administrative notification should follow the clinical notification of the primary healthcare provider to ensure the patient's immediate health.
B. Agency administration is typically notified through the formal filing of an incident report once the patient is stable and immediate care has been coordinated. The administration uses this data for risk management and system-wide improvements rather than direct clinical intervention. Therefore, reporting to this department first would inappropriately delay the necessary medical assessment of the affected client.
C. The client's provider must be notified first so they can evaluate the clinical impact of the error and prescribe any necessary antidotes or monitoring. Immediate medical assessment is the highest priority to ensure the patient does not suffer from toxic effects or therapeutic failure. The provider is responsible for determining the next steps in the client's medical management plan.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Filgrastim is a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor(G-CSF) used to stimulate the production of neutrophilsand reduce the duration of neutropenia. It acts on hematopoietic cells to increase phagocytic activity, but its timing relative to cytotoxic chemotherapy is critical to prevent drug interaction.
Rationale:
A.A decreased neutrophil count is the primary indication for administering filgrastim, not a reason for an incident report. The medication is specifically intended to treat or prevent febrile neutropenia in clients undergoing myelosuppressive therapy. Finding a low absolute neutrophil count justifies the use of the growth factor to boost the client's immune defense.
B.Filgrastim vials are stable at room temperature for up to 24 hours depending on specific manufacturer guidelines. Leaving the vial out for only 2 hours does not compromise the integrity of the medication or constitute a medication error. Therefore, this action does not necessitate an incident report as the medication remains safe for administration to the client.
C.Filgrastim should not be administered within 24 hours before or after the administration of cytotoxic chemotherapy. Giving the medication only 12 hr after chemotherapy is a significant timing error that can interfere with the effectiveness of the treatment and worsen marrow suppression. The nurse must complete an incident report to document this violation of the safety protocol for colony-stimulating factors.
D.Nausea is a common side effect of chemotherapy and can also occur with filgrastim, though it is not a reason for an incident report. Incident reports are reserved for errors, accidents, or unexpected hazardous events, not for documenting known, documented adverse reactions. The nurse should manage the nausea with antiemetics rather than filing an administrative error report.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Clozapine is an atypical antipsychoticused for treatment-resistant schizophrenia. It carries a black box warning for agranulocytosis, a severe reduction in granulocytes that predisposes patients to fatal sepsis. Monitoring the absolute neutrophil count and leukocytelevels is a mandatory safety requirement for this therapy.
Rationale:
A.A BMI of 28 indicates that the client is overweight, which is a common metabolic side effect of clozapine therapy. While weight gain should be managed through diet and lifestyle interventions, it does not represent an acute, life-threatening emergency. The nurse should document this finding but prioritize more urgent hematological complications during the assessment.
B.A fasting blood glucose of 180 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, reflecting the metabolic dysregulation often induced by second-generation antipsychotics. Clozapine can cause insulin resistance and new-onset diabetes mellitus. While this requires medical management and potential pharmacotherapy, it is not as immediately life-threatening as the risk of profound immunosuppression and systemic infection.
C.An LDL level of 220 mg/dL signifies hyperlipidemia, which increases the long-term risk of cardiovascular disease in patients taking clozapine. Dyslipidemia is a recognized adverse effect of the medication's impact on metabolic pathways. Although this value requires follow-up and statin therapy, it does not necessitate immediate notification compared to an urgent hematological crisis.
D.A WBC count of 2,500/mm3 is a critical finding indicating severe leukopenia and a high risk for agranulocytosis. This condition compromises the immune system, making the client highly vulnerable to life-threatening infections. The nurse must report this to the provider immediately, withhold the medication, and initiate protective isolation protocols to prevent the development of sepsis.
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