A nurse is collecting data from a newborn who has an infection of Candida albicans.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Vesicles on the skin, lips, and around the eyes.
White patches on the tongue that cannot be removed.
Edematous red conjunctivae.
Temperature 37.5° C (99.5° F).
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Vesicles on the skin, lips, and around the eyes are characteristic findings associated with herpes simplex virus infections, not Candida albicans. Herpes simplex presents with fluid-filled lesions and can be transmitted vertically during birth, manifesting in localized or disseminated forms in the neonate.
Choice B rationale
White patches on the tongue that cannot be removed are a classic sign of oral candidiasis, commonly known as thrush. This fungal infection, caused by *Candida albicans*, involves adhesion and proliferation of yeast on the mucous membranes, forming adherent pseudomembranous plaques.
Choice C rationale
Edematous red conjunctivae are typical manifestations of conjunctivitis, which can be caused by bacterial or viral infections, such as *Chlamydia trachomatis* or *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*, acquired during passage through the birth canal. This finding is not indicative of *Candida albicans* infection.
Choice D rationale
A temperature of 37.5° C (99.5° F) is within the normal range for a newborn, which typically falls between 36.5° C and 37.5° C (97.7° F and 99.5° F). While infections can cause fever, this specific temperature alone does not definitively indicate an infection with *Candida albicans* or any other pathogen.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A nonstress test (NST) typically takes 20 to 40 minutes to complete, not 2 to 4 hours. The duration is usually sufficient to observe fetal heart rate accelerations in response to fetal movement, which is the primary indicator of fetal well-being during the test.
Choice B rationale
A nonstress test is performed to assess fetal well-being, especially in pregnancies at risk for uteroplacental insufficiency, such as those with post-term gestation, pre-eclampsia, or diabetes, not specifically because it is a first pregnancy.
Choice C rationale
The nonstress test primarily measures the fetal heart rate patterns in response to fetal movement. Contraction strength is measured during a contraction stress test or by internal uterine pressure catheter, which is a different diagnostic procedure.
Choice D rationale
The nonstress test evaluates the fetal heart rate accelerations in response to spontaneous fetal movement. This indicates a healthy central nervous system and adequate oxygenation of the fetus. A reactive NST shows at least two accelerations of 15 bpm above baseline, lasting at least 15 seconds, within a 20-minute period.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Increasing the rate of maintenance IV fluids improves maternal intravascular volume and enhances uteroplacental perfusion. Late decelerations are indicative of uteroplacental insufficiency, where fetal oxygenation is compromised during contractions. By increasing fluid volume, the nurse can help optimize cardiac output and improve oxygen delivery to the fetus, potentially reducing the frequency or severity of late decelerations.
Choice B rationale: Assisting the client into a lateral position, preferably left lateral, helps relieve pressure on the inferior vena cava and improves venous return. This position enhances uteroplacental blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. It is a first-line intervention for late decelerations, as it can reduce fetal hypoxia by improving maternal-fetal circulation without requiring pharmacologic measures.
Choice C rationale: Oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L is insufficient to address fetal distress. When supplemental oxygen is indicated for intrauterine resuscitation, it should be administered via a non-rebreather mask at 10 L/min to maximize maternal oxygenation and fetal oxygen delivery. A nasal cannula at 2 L does not provide the high concentration needed to improve fetal oxygenation during late decelerations.
Choice D rationale: Misoprostol is a prostaglandin used for cervical ripening and labor induction. It is contraindicated in the presence of fetal distress, such as late decelerations, because it can cause uterine hyperstimulation and worsen fetal hypoxia. Administering misoprostol in this context could exacerbate the situation and increase the risk of adverse outcomes for the fetus.
Choice E rationale: Notifying the primary health care provider is essential when late decelerations are observed, as they indicate potential fetal compromise. Timely communication allows for further evaluation and potential interventions, such as adjusting oxytocin, initiating intrauterine resuscitation, or preparing for operative delivery if the fetal status does not improve. This action ensures collaborative and responsive care.
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