A nurse is collecting data from a client who reports nausea and has vomited clear emesis. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
Mependine
Diazepam
Naloxone
Promethazine
The Correct Answer is D
A. Meperidine. Meperidine is an opioid analgesic used for moderate to severe pain. It does not treat nausea and vomiting and can worsen these symptoms by delaying gastric emptying. Opioids also depress the central nervous system, which may cause dizziness and sedation.
B. Diazepam. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, muscle spasms, and seizures. It has no antiemetic effects and does not relieve nausea or vomiting. Instead, it can cause dizziness and drowsiness, which may further discomfort the client.
C. Naloxone. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression. Since the client’s nausea is not opioid-related, naloxone would not be beneficial. Its administration can also cause withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent clients.
D. Promethazine. Promethazine is an antiemetic that blocks histamine and dopamine receptors in the brain, reducing nausea and vomiting. It is commonly used for motion sickness, post-surgical nausea, and gastrointestinal illnesses, making it the appropriate choice for this client.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Add the medications to the enteral feeding bag. Medications should not be mixed with enteral feeding formula as this can alter drug absorption, cause tube clogging, or result in medication interactions. Each medication should be administered separately to ensure proper effectiveness.
B. Check for gastric residual 15 min after administering the medications. Gastric residual volume (GRV) should be checked before medication administration to assess delayed gastric emptying. Checking it after administration is unnecessary and may disrupt medication absorption without clinical benefit.
C. Keep the client's head elevated 15° while administering the medications. The head of the bed should be elevated at least 30–45 degrees, not 15 degrees, to reduce aspiration risk and promote medication passage. Insufficient elevation increases the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration pneumonia.
D. Flush the tube with 30 ml of water between each medication. Flushing with 30 mL of water between medications prevents tube clogging and ensures each drug is properly delivered. It also minimizes drug interactions by preventing medications from mixing within the tube.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Increased Hct. Propylthiouracil (PTU) is an antithyroid medication that reduces excessive thyroid hormone production in Graves' disease. It does not directly affect hematocrit (Hct) levels. While anemia can occur in some clients with untreated hyperthyroidism, PTU itself is not expected to raise Hct.
B. Decreased WBC count. A serious adverse effect of PTU is agranulocytosis, which results in a dangerously low white blood cell (WBC) count, increasing the risk of infection. However, this is a potential complication rather than an expected therapeutic outcome. Clients on PTU require regular monitoring of WBC levels to detect early signs of agranulocytosis.
C. Decreased heart rate. Graves’ disease causes hyperthyroidism, which increases metabolism and leads to symptoms such as tachycardia. PTU works by inhibiting thyroid hormone synthesis, leading to a gradual reduction in heart rate as thyroid function normalizes. This is a desired outcome of treatment, helping to reduce cardiovascular strain associated with hyperthyroidism.
D. Increased blood pressure. Hyperthyroidism can cause elevated blood pressure due to increased cardiac output. As PTU lowers thyroid hormone levels, blood pressure is expected to decrease or stabilize rather than increase. An increase in blood pressure would be unexpected and may indicate another underlying issue requiring evaluation.
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