A nurse is collecting data from a client who is receiving epidural anesthesia. Which of the following findings indicates an adverse effect of this method of pain management?
Tachycardia
Fever
Tachypnea
Hypertension
The Correct Answer is C
Rationale:
A. Tachycardia is not a common or direct adverse effect of epidural anesthesia itself. While a rapid heart rate may occur secondary to maternal anxiety or as a compensatory response to hypotension, it is not the primary physiological marker for epidural complications. Heart rate typically remains stable or may decrease slightly as pain is relieved and sympathetic activity is modulated.
B. Fever is a documented potential adverse effect associated with epidural anesthesia, particularly during labor. The exact mechanism is multifactorial, potentially involving altered thermoregulation, reduced heat dissipation due to sympathetic blockade, or a non-infectious inflammatory response. Clinicians must distinguish this pharmacological pyrexia from maternal infection to ensure appropriate neonatal and maternal management following the delivery.
C. Tachypnea, or an increased respiratory rate, is generally not associated with epidural anesthesia. In fact, if the anesthesia level rises too high, it can lead to respiratory depression or a decreased rate due to the blockade of intercostal muscle nerves. Effective epidural analgesia usually promotes a more relaxed, normal breathing pattern by successfully alleviating the physiological stress and hyperventilation caused by acute pain.
D. Hypertension is the opposite of the expected vascular response to epidural anesthesia. The local anesthetic typically causes a sympathetic blockade, leading to peripheral vasodilation and a significant risk of maternal hypotension rather than high blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is a critical nursing priority because decreased systemic vascular resistance can compromise placental perfusion and lead to fetal heart rate decelerations.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect- Foul-smelling vaginal discharge might indicate infection but is not the priority over the presence of meconium-stained amniotic fluid.
B) Correct- Fetal heart rate is important to monitor, but the presence of meconium- stained amniotic fluid has higher priority. fetal heart tones 98/min, because this indicates fetal distress and requires immediate intervention.
C) Incorrect - Amniotic fluid with meconium noted could indicate fetal hypoxia or distress, but it is not always a sign of a problem and depends on other factors such as gestational age and fetal activity.
D) Incorrect- Maternal temperature elevation might indicate infection but is not the priority over assessing the condition of the amniotic fluid and the baby.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Incorrect- Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication used to relax uterine muscles and inhibit contractions, not to treat an ectopic pregnancy.
B) Incorrect- Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia, not to treat ectopic pregnancies.
C) Correct - Methotrexate is often used to treat unruptured ectopic pregnancies in the early stages by inhibiting the growth of trophoblastic tissue.
D) Incorrect- Calcium gluconate is used to treat magnesium toxicity and other conditions related to calcium imbalance, not to treat ectopic pregnancies.
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