A nurse is collecting data from a client who has gout and is taking allopurinol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse identify as the priority to report to the provider?
Rash
Diarrhea
Nausea
Metallic taste in mouth
The Correct Answer is A
A. Rash. A rash while taking allopurinol can indicate a serious hypersensitivity reaction, including Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) or toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN). These life-threatening conditions involve widespread skin blistering, mucosal involvement, and systemic symptoms. Immediate discontinuation of allopurinol and medical intervention are required to prevent severe complications.
B. Diarrhea. Mild gastrointestinal disturbances, including diarrhea, are common with allopurinol use. While bothersome, diarrhea is not life-threatening and can often be managed by adjusting the dose or taking the medication with food. It does not require immediate discontinuation unless severe or persistent.
C. Nausea. Nausea is a common, mild side effect of allopurinol that usually resolves with time or by taking the medication after meals. It is not an emergency and does not require urgent intervention unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms such as vomiting or severe abdominal pain.
D. Metallic taste in mouth. A metallic taste can occur with allopurinol use but is not harmful. It is a minor side effect that does not indicate toxicity or severe adverse reactions. Clients can be reassured that this effect is temporary and not a reason to stop the medication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Varenicline. Varenicline is used to aid smoking cessation by reducing nicotine cravings and withdrawal symptoms. It does not have a role in managing acute alcohol withdrawal and would not be effective in preventing withdrawal-related complications.
B. Diazepam. Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, is commonly used to manage acute alcohol withdrawal by preventing seizures, reducing agitation, and alleviating autonomic hyperactivity (e.g., tachycardia, hypertension). It enhances GABA activity, which helps counteract the excitatory effects of alcohol withdrawal, reducing the risk of delirium tremens (DTs).
C. Clonidine. Clonidine is an alpha-2 agonist that helps control autonomic symptoms such as elevated blood pressure and heart rate. While it may be used as an adjunct therapy, it does not prevent seizures or delirium, making it insufficient as a primary treatment for alcohol withdrawal.
D. Methadone. Methadone is used for opioid withdrawal and maintenance therapy in opioid dependence. It does not alleviate alcohol withdrawal symptoms or prevent complications such as seizures or delirium, making it inappropriate for this condition.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Atropine. Atropine is an anticholinergic medication used to treat bradycardia and reduce secretions before surgery. It has no effect on reversing anticoagulation caused by heparin and would not be an appropriate treatment for heparin overdose.
B. Vitamin K. Vitamin K is used as an antidote for warfarin toxicity, as it helps produce clotting factors that warfarin inhibits. However, it does not reverse the effects of heparin, which works by enhancing the activity of antithrombin to prevent clot formation.
C. Vitamin B12. Vitamin B12 is essential for red blood cell production and neurological function, primarily used to treat conditions like pernicious anemia. It does not have any role in reversing the anticoagulant effects of heparin and would not be beneficial in this situation.
D. Protamine. Protamine sulfate is the specific antidote for heparin overdose. It binds to heparin, neutralizing its anticoagulant effects and preventing excessive bleeding. Protamine is administered intravenously in cases of heparin toxicity or when urgent reversal is needed, such as before surgery or in cases of uncontrolled bleeding.
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