A nurse is collecting data from a client who has fluid volume excess. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Weight loss
Increased hematocrit
Crackles in the lungs
Weak peripheral pulses
The Correct Answer is C
Fluid volume excess occurs when there is an accumulation of isotonic fluid in the intravascular and interstitial spaces, often due to conditions such as heart failure, renal impairment, or excessive fluid intake. This leads to increased hydrostatic pressure and fluid shifting into tissues and body cavities. Respiratory and cardiovascular systems are commonly affected due to fluid overload. Nurses must recognize early signs of pulmonary congestion and systemic fluid retention to prevent complications such as pulmonary edema.
Rationale:
A. Weight loss is not expected in fluid volume excess; instead, clients typically experience rapid weight gain due to fluid retention. Daily weight monitoring is a key indicator of fluid status, and increases reflect worsening fluid overload rather than loss.
B. Increased hematocrit is associated with fluid volume deficit because of hemoconcentration. In fluid volume excess, hematocrit is typically decreased due to dilution of blood components from excess plasma volume. Therefore, this finding is inconsistent with fluid overload.
C. Crackles in the lungs are an expected finding in fluid volume excess due to accumulation of fluid in the alveolar spaces. This leads to impaired gas exchange and may progress to pulmonary edema. Crackles are typically heard on auscultation and indicate fluid shifting into the lungs.
D. Weak peripheral pulses are more commonly associated with fluid volume deficit or poor perfusion states. In fluid volume excess, pulses are often bounding due to increased circulating volume and pressure. Therefore, weak pulses do not align with the expected findings of fluid overload.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Child maltreatment risk factors include child-related, caregiver-related, and environmental factors that increase vulnerability to abuse or neglect. Children with chronic illnesses, developmental disabilities, or physical impairments often require increased care and supervision, which can increase caregiver stress and dependency. These factors may heighten the risk of neglect or abuse in some caregiving environments. Nurses must recognize these risk factors to support early identification and prevention of maltreatment.
Rationale:
A. A child conceived by in vitro fertilization is not considered at increased risk for child maltreatment based on conception method alone. Assisted reproductive techniques do not inherently contribute to abuse or neglect risk. Risk assessment focuses more on caregiver stressors, social factors, and child dependency rather than mode of conception.
B. A toddler with atopic dermatitis does not represent a primary risk factor for child maltreatment. Chronic skin conditions may require ongoing care, they do not typically increase caregiver burden to the level associated with higher abuse risk unless severe or poorly managed in the context of other social stressors.
C. A school-age child with cerebral palsy is at increased risk for child maltreatment because chronic physical disability often requires significant caregiver involvement and long-term dependency. Caregiver stress, financial burden, and increased care demands can contribute to neglect or abuse risk. Children with disabilities are consistently identified as a vulnerable population in child protection literature.
D. An only child is not considered a risk factor for child maltreatment. Family size alone does not determine abuse risk, and being an only child does not inherently increase vulnerability. Risk is more closely associated with caregiver characteristics, stress levels, substance use, and environmental instability rather than birth order or family structure.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
In a healthcare setting, particularly long-term care facilities, communication and delegation follow a clear chain of command to ensure patient safety and proper resolution of clinical concerns. When an assistive personnel performs an incorrect clinical task, immediate reporting should follow the established supervisory structure. The charge nurse is typically responsible for direct unit oversight and real-time clinical supervision of staff activities. Prompt escalation ensures timely correction of errors and prevention of patient harm.
Rationale:
A. The charge nurse is the immediate supervisor responsible for overseeing daily unit operations and staff performance. Reporting to the charge nurse first allows for rapid intervention, correction of the error, and direct education of the assistive personnel. This ensures patient safety is addressed without unnecessary delay in the chain of communication.
B. The nurse supervisor generally oversees multiple units or shifts and is not the first point of contact for immediate bedside concerns. Although they may become involved in more serious or unresolved issues, the initial report should go through the charge nurse for prompt correction at the unit level.
C. The nurse manager is responsible for administrative functions, staffing, and long-term unit management rather than immediate clinical supervision. Reporting directly to the nurse manager bypasses the appropriate chain of command and may delay timely intervention for the patient-related issue.
D. The risk manager is involved in tracking adverse events and implementing system-wide safety improvements after incidents occur. This role is not involved in immediate clinical supervision or correction of staff errors at the bedside. Reporting to risk management would occur later if the error results in harm or requires formal documentation.
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