A nurse is collecting data from a client who has asthma. Which of the following prescribed medications should the nurse administer first for severe wheezing?
Bronchodilators
Beta blocker
Inhaled steroids
Anti-inflammatory agent
The Correct Answer is A
The nurse should administer bronchodilators first for severe wheezing. Bronchodilators work by relaxing the muscles in the airways, which helps to open them up and make it easier to breathe.
Option b is incorrect because beta blockers are not typically used to treat asthma and can actually worsen symptoms in some clients.
Option c is incorrect because inhaled steroids are used to reduce inflammation in the airways over time and are not typically used for immediate relief of severe wheezing.
Option d is incorrect because anti-inflammatory agents are used to reduce inflammation in the airways over time and are not typically used for immediate relief of severe wheezing.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Answer: A
Rationale:
A) Ampicillin: Ampicillin is contraindicated for this client because it belongs to the penicillin class of antibiotics. Since the client is allergic to penicillin, administering ampicillin could trigger an allergic reaction, which could range from mild rash to severe anaphylaxis.
B) Erythromycin: Erythromycin is a macrolide antibiotic and can be used as an alternative for clients who are allergic to penicillin. It is often prescribed for group B streptococcus infections in penicillin-allergic clients, making it a suitable option in this case.
C) Cefazolin: Cefazolin is a cephalosporin antibiotic and is generally considered safe for clients with a penicillin allergy, except in cases of severe penicillin allergies. Cross-reactivity is low, and cefazolin can be an appropriate choice for treating group B streptococcus.
D) Clindamycin: Clindamycin is a lincosamide antibiotic and is often used for clients with penicillin allergies. It is effective against group B streptococcus and does not belong to the penicillin or cephalosporin classes, making it a suitable option for this client.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
b. Migraines with aura.
Explanation:
Migraines with aura are considered a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives. Auras are neurological symptoms that occur before or during migraines and can include visual disturbances, sensory changes, or speech difficulties. Women who experience migraines with aura have an increased risk of ischemic stroke when taking oral contraceptives. Therefore, it is important to identify this condition as a contraindication and explore alternative contraceptive options for the client.
The other options (a. History of renal calculus, c. BMI of 25, d. History of cholecystectomy) are not contraindications to the use of oral contraceptives.

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