A nurse is caring for an adolescent client who was in a vehicle collision and has suffered a major head injury. The client's parents are considering organ donation and ask the nurse how the health care providers determine brain death. Which response by the nurse accurately describes brain death determination?
"Brain death has occurred if there is no spontaneous breathing or brainstem reflexes.
“If respiratory efforts cease and no apical pulse is audible, brain death is present."
"Brain death has occurred if a person has flaccid muscles and does not awaken.
“CPR does not restore a heartbeat; the brain cannot function."
The Correct Answer is A
A. “Brain death has occurred if there is no spontaneous breathing or brainstem reflexes.” Brain death is defined as the irreversible cessation of all functions of the entire brain, including the brainstem. The absence of spontaneous breathing and brainstem reflexes (such as pupillary response, gag reflex, and eye movements) are critical criteria used to confirm brain death.
B. “If respiratory efforts cease and no apical pulse is audible, brain death is present.” While the cessation of respiratory efforts is a key component of brain death, the presence or absence of an apical pulse alone is not sufficient for determining brain death. Brain death is determined based on the complete absence of brain function, including brainstem reflexes.
C. “Brain death has occurred if a person has flaccid muscles and does not awaken.” Muscle flaccidity and lack of consciousness may be signs of severe brain injury, but they do not necessarily confirm brain death. Brain death is diagnosed based on the absence of brainstem reflexes and spontaneous breathing.
D. “CPR does not restore a heartbeat, the brain cannot function.” While it is true that CPR may not restore circulation in brain-dead patients, this statement is incomplete and not a precise definition of brain death. Brain death is determined by the irreversible cessation of all brain activity, not just by the failure of CPR to restore circulation.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Pelvic fracture: Pelvic fractures may cause significant pain and instability but do not typically result in a shortened, adducted, and externally rotated leg.
B. Femoral neck fracture: These findings (shortened, adducted, externally rotated leg) are classic for a femoral neck fracture due to muscle contraction and displacement of the bone.
C. Tibia fracture: Tibia fractures typically present with swelling and deformity, not shortening or rotation of the leg.
D. Fibula fracture: A fibula fracture alone rarely causes leg shortening or rotation as it is a non-weight-bearing bone.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Troponin: Troponin is the most specific and reliable biomarker for myocardial injury. Levels rise within 3-6 hours and remain elevated for days, providing diagnostic and prognostic information.
B. Alkaline phosphatase: This is related to liver and bone disorders, not cardiac events.
C. Creatine kinase (CK): While CK-MB is specific to cardiac tissue, it is less specific and remains elevated for a shorter period compared to troponin.
D. Myoglobin: Myoglobin is an early but nonspecific marker of muscle damage and is not as reliable for diagnosing myocardial injury.
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