A nurse is caring for an 82-year-old male with a history of mild kidney dysfunction who is recently admitted to the hospital for an unwitnessed fall. The nurse noted that the client had been taking cimetidine (Tagamet HB) at the maximum dosage for 2 months. Which of the following are complications of this cimetidine (Tagamet HB) that contributed to his admission? (Select All That Apply.)
Restlessness
Lethargy
Increased libido
Confusion
Correct Answer : B,D
A. Restlessness is not a common side effect of cimetidine. Neurological side effects typically involve sedation or confusion rather than hyperactivity.
B. Lethargy is a potential adverse effect of cimetidine, especially in older adults or those with renal dysfunction, due to the drug’s impact on the central nervous system.
C. Increased libido is not associated with cimetidine. In fact, it may cause decreased libido and sexual dysfunction in some cases.
D. Confusion is a known complication of cimetidine, particularly in elderly clients with impaired renal function, as the drug can accumulate in the body and affect the brain.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "I will take both aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) and cimetidine (Tagamet HB) at the same time." – This is correct. Taking aluminum hydroxide and cimetidine simultaneously reduces the effectiveness of cimetidine by impairing its absorption. This statement indicates a need for further teaching.
B. "I will take aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) 1 hour before taking cimetidine (Tagamet HB)." – This is incorrect. Taking aluminum hydroxide 1 hour before cimetidine allows enough time for the antacid's effects on stomach acidity to stabilize, reducing interference.
C. "I can take aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) 2 hours before taking cimetidine (Tagamet HB)." – This is incorrect. Taking the antacid 2 hours before cimetidine provides sufficient time for proper absorption of the medication.
D. None of the above – This is incorrect because statement A reflects improper administration.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. 4 teaspoons – This is incorrect because 4 teaspoons would provide 400 mg (100 mg x 4 = 400 mg), but the correct dose per administration is 400 mg. However, this is not the correct calculation, as only 2 teaspoons are needed.
B. 2 teaspoons – This is correct. The prescribed dose is 400 mg, and since the medication concentration is 100 mg per teaspoon, 2 teaspoons (100 mg x 2 = 200 mg) is the correct dose for each administration.
C. 1 teaspoon – This is incorrect because 1 teaspoon would only provide 100 mg, and the prescribed dose is 400 mg. This is not enough to meet the prescribed dose.
D. 3 teaspoons – This is incorrect because 3 teaspoons would provide 300 mg (100 mg x 3 = 300 mg), which is not enough to meet the prescribed 400 mg dose.
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