A nurse is caring for a newborn delivered by vaginal birth with vacuum assist. The newborn's mother asks about the swollen area on her son's head. After palpation to identify that the swelling crosses the suture line, which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

Mongolian spots can be found on the skin of many newborns.

Caput succedaneum occurs due to compression of blood vessels.

This is erythema toxicum, which is a transient condition.

This is a cephalohematoma, which can occur spontaneously.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice a reason:
Mongolian spots are a type of pigmented birthmark commonly found in newborns, often appearing as blue or grayish areas on the skin. They are not related to swelling and do not result from vacuum-assisted deliveries. Mongolian spots are usually located on the buttocks or lower back and are not associated with the type of swelling described by the mother.

Choice b reason:
Caput succedaneum is a condition where the newborn's scalp swells due to pressure during delivery. It is characterized by a soft, spongy mass that crosses suture lines and is most apparent on the part of the skull that was first to enter the birth canal. This condition is common in vacuum-assisted deliveries and is the correct explanation for the swelling observed on the newborn's head.

Choice c reason:
Erythema toxicum is a common and benign skin condition in newborns, presenting as red patches or small, fluid-filled bumps. It is not related to the swelling described and does not result from vacuum-assisted deliveries. Erythema toxicum typically resolves on its own and does not cause the type of swelling that crosses suture lines.

Choice d reason:
Cephalohematoma is a collection of blood between a newborn's scalp and the skull bone that results from ruptured blood vessels, which can be a result of birth trauma or pressure. However, it is typically confined to one area and does not cross suture lines. Since the swelling described by the mother crosses the suture lines, cephalohematoma is less likely to be the correct diagnosis.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Placental insufficiency is a significant cause of a newborn being small for gestational age. It occurs when the placenta cannot deliver an adequate supply of nutrients and oxygen to the fetus. This condition can result from several factors, including maternal hypertension, diabetes, and certain infections. Placental insufficiency leads to intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), which is often diagnosed when a fetus's estimated weight is below the 10th percentile for its gestational age¹². The normal range for fetal growth varies, but a key indicator is the consistent growth along a certain percentile line on growth charts.

Choice B reason:
Fetal hyperinsulinemia is typically associated with mothers who have diabetes. Insulin acts as a growth hormone; thus, excessive insulin can lead to macrosomia, where the newborn is larger than normal for the gestational age, not smaller². Therefore, fetal hyperinsulinemia is not a likely cause of SGA.

Choice C reason:
Preterm delivery can result in a newborn being small for gestational age simply due to the fact that the baby is born before reaching full term and having the opportunity to achieve the expected in-utero growth. However, being born preterm does not necessarily mean the infant is SGA; it means the infant is smaller than full-term babies because they have had less time to grow in utero¹.

Choice D reason:
Perinatal asphyxia refers to a lack of oxygen to the fetus during the time immediately before, during, or after birth. While it can lead to various complications and is a serious condition, it is not a direct cause of a newborn being small for gestational age. Perinatal asphyxia can occur in infants of any gestational age or size².

A. A pelvic exam is required if you want birth control pills. B. Don't worry, I will be with you during the exam. C. All you need to do is relax. D. What part of the exam makes you most nervous?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Telling a client that a pelvic exam is required for birth control pills is not accurate. Current medical guidelines indicate that a pelvic exam is not necessary to prescribe oral contraceptive medications, hormonal contraceptives can be safely prescribed based on medical history and blood pressure measurement without the need for a pelvic or breast examination.

Choice B reason:
While offering support is important, simply telling the client not to worry does not address her specific concerns or provide her with information about the process and her options.

Choice C reason:
Advising the client to relax does not acknowledge the validity of her feelings or provide her with any concrete information or support to help alleviate her anxiety.

Choice D reason:
Asking the client what part of the exam makes her most nervous is an open-ended question that invites dialogue. It allows the nurse to provide targeted information and reassurance, addressing the client's specific concerns and promoting a sense of control and participation in her own health care decisions.

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A nurse is caring for a newborn delivered by vaginal birth with vacuum assist. The newborn's mother asks about the swollen area on her son's head. After palpation to identify that the swelling crosses the suture line, which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is providing teaching to the mother of a newborn born small for gestational age (SGA). Which of the following should the nurse include as a possible cause of this condition?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse in a family planning clinic is caring for a 17-year-old female client who is requesting oral contraceptives. The client states that she is nervous because she has never had a pelvic examination. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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