A nurse is caring for a group of patients on an intrapartum unit.
Which of the following findings should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
A patient at 28 weeks of gestation receiving terbutaline reports fine tremors.
A tearful patient at 32 weeks of gestation is experiencing irregular, frequent contractions.
A patient diagnosed with preeclampsia reports epigastric pain and an unresolved headache.
A patient diagnosed with preeclampsia has 2+ proteinuria and 2+ patellar reflexes.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
A patient at 28 weeks of gestation receiving terbutaline may report fine tremors. This is a common side effect of terbutaline, which is a medication used to relax the muscles in the uterus to prevent premature labor. However, while it may be uncomfortable for the patient, it is not typically a cause for immediate concern.
Choice B rationale
A tearful patient at 32 weeks of gestation experiencing irregular, frequent contractions could be experiencing Braxton Hicks contractions, which are often referred to as “false labor.”. These contractions are usually irregular and do not increase in intensity or frequency. While they can be uncomfortable, they are a normal part of pregnancy and do not typically require immediate medical attention. Choice C rationale
A patient diagnosed with preeclampsia reporting epigastric pain and an unresolved headache should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. These symptoms could indicate severe preeclampsia, which can lead to serious complications if not treated promptly. Epigastric pain may suggest liver involvement, and a persistent headache could be a sign of neurological involvement, both of which require immediate medical attention.
Choice D rationale
A patient diagnosed with preeclampsia having 2+ proteinuria and 2+ patellar reflexes is expected. Proteinuria is a common symptom of preeclampsia, and hyperreflexia can be a sign of increased neurological excitability, a common feature of preeclampsia. However, these findings alone do not typically require immediate medical attention.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The client’s symptoms of elevated blood pressure, 3+ edema in the lower extremities, and 3+ proteinuria are indicative of preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a complication of pregnancy that begins after 20 weeks of gestation in women whose blood pressure had previously been in the standard range. It is associated with high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, often the liver and kidneys. In this case, the nurse should initiate seizure precautions and monitor the client’s neurological status and liver function studies. Seizure precautions are necessary because eclampsia, a severe form of preeclampsia, can lead to seizures. Monitoring neurological status can help detect changes in the client’s condition, and liver function studies can help assess the impact of preeclampsia on the liver.
Choice B rationale
While the client does have a history of chronic hypertension, the current symptoms suggest a condition more severe than chronic hypertension. Administering antihypertensive medication and monitoring blood pressure and heart rate would be appropriate actions for managing chronic hypertension, but they may not be sufficient to address the client’s current condition.
Choice C rationale
Gestational diabetes is a condition characterized by high blood sugar levels that develop during pregnancy in women who did not have diabetes before pregnancy. The client’s symptoms do not indicate gestational diabetes. While administering insulin and monitoring blood glucose levels and fetal heart rate would be appropriate actions for managing gestational diabetes, they do not address the client’s current symptoms.
Choice D rationale
Preterm labor refers to regular contractions of the uterus resulting in changes in the cervix that start before 37 weeks of pregnancy. The client’s symptoms do not suggest preterm labor. Administering tocolytics and monitoring contraction pattern and cervical dilation would be appropriate actions for managing preterm labor, but they do not address the client’s current symptoms.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is D. Slightly above the umbilicus. At 22 weeks of gestation, the fundus, or top of the uterus, is typically located slightly above the umbilicus.
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