A nurse is caring for a female client, age 32, who is at 28 weeks of gestation, admitted to the antepartum unit with vaginal bleeding.
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s progress.
The Correct Answer is []
Rationale for correct condition
Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening, causing painless bright red vaginal bleeding during the second or third trimester. The client’s presentation of painless vaginal bleeding without contractions or abdominal tenderness supports this diagnosis. Fundal height measuring 27 cm at 28 weeks aligns with normal gestation, and the absence of uterine irritability or pain differentiates it from abruptio placentae. Fetal heart rate of 170/min with minimal variability reflects fetal stress but no immediate decelerations. These features are consistent with placenta previa rather than other causes of bleeding.
Rationale for correct actions
Strict bed rest reduces mechanical disruption of the placenta previa site, minimizing further bleeding risk and improving maternal-fetal oxygenation. Large-bore IV access is essential to rapidly administer fluids or blood products if hemorrhage occurs, maintaining maternal hemodynamic stability. Both actions are critical for managing acute vaginal bleeding while ensuring safety until delivery or further intervention.
Rationale for correct parameters
Monitoring fetal well-being via continuous electronic fetal monitoring detects signs of hypoxia or distress, guiding timely interventions. Tracking vaginal bleeding quantifies blood loss and progression, essential to assess severity and need for transfusion. Both parameters directly evaluate maternal and fetal status during placenta previa management.
Rationale for incorrect conditions
Abruptio placentae involves premature placental separation causing painful bleeding and uterine tenderness, absent here. Chorioamnionitis presents with maternal fever, uterine tenderness, and fetal tachycardia due to infection, none reported. Vasa previa entails fetal vessel rupture causing rapid fetal distress and bleeding; no signs of fetal demise or sudden distress are evident.
Rationale for incorrect actions
Administering pitocin is contraindicated as it may cause contractions worsening bleeding in placenta previa. Methotrexate treats ectopic pregnancy or trophoblastic disease, unrelated here. Vaginal examination risks provoking hemorrhage and is avoided in placenta previa.
Rationale for incorrect parameters
White blood cell count monitors infection, not relevant in this case without fever or leukocytosis. Cervical dilation monitoring is contraindicated due to risk of hemorrhage in placenta previa. Beta-human chorionic gonadotropin levels evaluate pregnancy viability or trophoblastic disease, irrelevant here.
Take home points
- Placenta previa presents as painless bright red bleeding in the third trimester.
- Avoid vaginal examinations to prevent hemorrhage in placenta previa.
- Strict bed rest and IV access are critical management steps.
- Differentiate placenta previa from abruptio placentae by pain and uterine tenderness.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Ensuring suction is available is critical because clients with severe preeclampsia or eclampsia are at risk for seizures that can cause airway obstruction from secretions or vomiting. Suction readiness supports immediate airway management during a seizure, preventing aspiration and maintaining oxygenation, essential in protecting maternal and fetal health.
Choice B rationale: Administering 10 L of oxygen via nasal cannula is not appropriate because nasal cannulas typically deliver oxygen up to 6 L/min; higher flows require a different delivery system like a non-rebreather mask. Also, routine high-flow oxygen is not indicated unless hypoxia is present. The client’s oxygen saturation is normal (99%), so supplemental oxygen at this rate is unnecessary and could cause discomfort or drying of mucous membranes.
Choice C rationale: Raising side rails is a safety measure to prevent injury during seizures or sudden movements caused by central nervous system irritability in preeclampsia. Elevated side rails help protect the client from falls or trauma if a seizure occurs, an essential precaution in clients with neurological symptoms such as hyperreflexia and clonus.
Choice D rationale: Placing a padded tongue blade at the bedside prepares for seizure management by preventing tongue biting and airway obstruction. The padded blade reduces the risk of oral trauma during convulsions and maintains airway patency. However, it should be used carefully to avoid airway injury or obstruction and only if a seizure occurs.
Choice E rationale: Dimming lights reduces environmental stimuli that may exacerbate neurological irritability or trigger seizures in preeclampsia/eclampsia. Bright or flashing lights can increase CNS excitation, worsening headache, visual disturbances, or seizure risk. Creating a calm, low-stimulation environment helps stabilize the client’s neurological status.
Choice F rationale: Placing the client in the supine position is contraindicated because it compresses the inferior vena cava, reducing venous return and cardiac output, potentially worsening placental perfusion. The left lateral position is preferred in hypertensive pregnancy to optimize uteroplacental blood flow and maternal hemodynamics, improving fetal oxygenation and maternal comfort.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The specific volume of formula for gavage feeding a newborn, such as 20 mL, depends on the newborn's weight, gestational age, and clinical condition. A blanket recommendation of 20 mL without this individualized assessment is inappropriate and could lead to over or underfeeding, impacting growth and gastrointestinal tolerance.
Choice B rationale
Placing a newborn in a supine position immediately after gavage feedings increases the risk of aspiration, especially for infants with immature swallowing reflexes or reflux. The newborn should be positioned on their right side or semi-Fowler's position to facilitate gastric emptying and minimize aspiration risk.
Choice C rationale
While cluster feeding (multiple feedings close together) is a natural pattern for some breastfed infants, for gavage feeding, regular, scheduled intervals are typically maintained to ensure consistent nutrient delivery and proper digestion, especially in newborns who are medically fragile. Cluster feeding is not a standard gavage feeding practice.
Choice D rationale
Nonnutritive sucking (e.g., pacifier use) during gavage feedings is crucial for promoting oral motor development and associating the feeling of fullness with sucking. This helps prevent oral aversion and prepares the newborn for eventual oral feeding, stimulating gastric secretions and improving digestion.
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