A nurse is caring for a client who reports that he is angry with his partner because she thinks he is just trying to gain attention. When the nurse attempts to talk to the client, he becomes angry and tells her to leave. Which of the following defense mechanisms is the client demonstrating?
Displacement
Compensation
Denial
Rationalization
The Correct Answer is A
A. Displacement involves redirecting emotions or behaviors from the original source to a less threatening or more accessible target. In this scenario, the client is redirecting his anger from his partner to the nurse, who is perceived as a safer target.
B. Compensation involves overachieving in one area to compensate for deficiencies in another area and is not demonstrated in this scenario.
C. Denial involves refusing to acknowledge the existence of a real situation or the feelings associated with it, which is not evident in the client's behavior.
D. Rationalization involves creating logical or socially acceptable explanations for behaviors or feelings that are unacceptable, which is not demonstrated in the client's behavior in this scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. While a client with anorexia nervosa may require close monitoring and support, expressing a fear of gaining weight does not necessarily indicate an immediate safety concern that requires an update to the plan of care.
B. Bipolar disorder can involve manic episodes characterized by impulsivity and risk-taking behaviors. Exhibiting poor impulse control indicates a potential safety concern that requires an update to the plan of care to ensure the client's safety and the safety of others.
C. Clang associations in speech are a symptom of disorganized thinking commonly seen in schizophrenia. While it may indicate a need for intervention, it does not necessarily require an immediate update to the plan of care for safety reasons.
D. Difficulty remembering names of family members is a symptom of Alzheimer's disease and may require ongoing support and management but does not present an immediate safety concern that requires an update to the plan of care.
Correct Answer is ["10"]
Explanation
First, we need to determine how many milligrams (mg) are in each milliliter (mL) of the solution.
The available methylphenidate oral solution has a concentration of 10 mg per 5 mL.
To find out how many milligrams are in 1 mL of the solution, we divide 10 mg by 5 mL: 10 mg / 5 mL = 2 mg/mL
The child's prescription is for 40 mg per day, divided into two doses. So, each dose should contain:
40 mg / 2 doses = 20 mg per dose 2mg=1ml
20mg= 20*1/2= 10ml
Therefore, the nurse should administer 10 mL of methylphenidate oral solution per dose
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