A nurse is caring for a client who repeatedly refuses meals.
The nurse overhears an assistive personnel (AP) telling the client, “If you don’t eat, I’ll put restraints on your wrists and feed you.” The nurse should intervene and explain to the AP that this statement constitutes which of the following torts?
Assault.
Battery.
Negligence.
Malpractice.
The Correct Answer is A
This is because the AP’s statement constitutes an intentional tort, which is a wrong that the defendant knew or should have known would be caused by their actions. An assault is defined as intentionally putting another person in reasonable apprehension of an imminent harmful or offensive contact.
The AP’s threat of using restraints and force-feeding the client could cause the client to fear for their safety and dignity, which is an assault.
Choice B is wrong because Battery is wrong because battery is defined as intentional causation of harmful or offensive contact with another person without that person’s consent.
The AP did not actually touch the client or carry out the threat, so there was no battery.
Choice C is wrong because Negligence is wrong because negligence is an unintentional tort, which occurs when the defendant’s actions or inactions were unreasonably unsafe.
The AP did not act or fail to act in a way that breached the standard of care or caused harm to the client, so there was no negligence.
Choice D is wrong because Malpractice is wrong because malpractice is a type of negligence that involves a professional failing to perform their duties according to the standards of their profession.
The AP did not perform any professional duty or service that was below the standard of care or caused harm to the client, so there was no malpractice.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is because a cathartic suppository stimulates the nerve endings in the rectum, causing a contraction of the bowel and facilitating defecation. This is especially helpful for clients who have an upper motor neuron or areflexic bowel, which means they have lost the ability to feel when the rectum is full and have a tight anal sphincter muscle. A bowel program is a way of controlling or moving the bowels after a spinal cord injury, which may affect normal bowel function depending on the spinal level involved. A bowel program aims to achieve regular bowel movements, prevent constipation or impaction, and avoid accidents.
Choice A is wrong because encouraging a maximum fluid intake of 1,500 mL per day is not enough to prevent constipation and promote bowel health. A fluid intake of at least 2,000 mL per day is recommended for most adults.
Choice B is wrong because increasing the amount of refined grains in the client’s diet can worsen constipation and reduce stool bulk.
Refined grains are low in fiber, which is essential for normal bowel function. A high-fiber diet of at least 20 to 35 grams per day is advised for clients with spinal cord injuries.
Choice C is wrong because providing the client with a cold drink prior to defecation can have the opposite effect of stimulating the bowel.
Cold drinks can slow down the digestive process and reduce peristalsis, which is the movement of food through the intestines. Warm or hot drinks can help stimulate the bowel and increase peristalsis.
Correct Answer is ["C","E"]
Explanation
Preterm pre-labor rupture of membranes (PROM) is the spontaneous rupture of the amniotic sac before the onset of labor in a pregnancy less than 37 weeks gestation. It can lead to
infection, cord prolapse, placental abruption, and preterm delivery. The client has risk factors for PROM such as a history of preterm birth and a current infection indicated by fever.
Sepsis is a life-threatening condition that occurs when the body’s response to an infection causes damage to its own tissues and organs. The client has signs of sepsis such as fever, tachycardia, and possible organ dysfunction. The client may have a urinary tract infection, a common cause of sepsis in pregnancy, or an intrauterine infection due to PROM or other factors.
Preeclampsia is not a likely complication for this client because she does not have high blood pressure or proteinuria, which are the defining features of preeclampsia. Seizures are not a likely complication for this client because she does not have epilepsy or eclampsia, which are the leading causes of seizures in pregnancy. Placenta previa is not a likely complication for this client because she does not have painless vaginal bleeding, which is the hallmark symptom of placenta previa.
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