A nurse is reviewing a client’s cardiac rhythm strips and notes a constant P-R interval of 0.35 seconds.
Which of the following dysrhythmias is the client displaying?
Atrial fibrillation.
Complete heart block.
First-degree atrioventricular block.
Premature atrial complexes.
The Correct Answer is C
This is because the PR interval is longer than normal, which indicates a delay in the conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles through the AV node. A normal PR interval is 0.12 to 0.2 seconds, or 3 to 5 small squares on the EKG strip. In this case, the PR interval is 0.35 seconds, which is more than 5 small squares.
Choice A is wrong because atrial fibrillation is a type of arrhythmia where the atria beat irregularly and rapidly, producing chaotic and variable P waves and an irregular ventricular response.
There is no constant PR interval in atrial fibrillation.
Choice B is wrong because complete heart block is a type of arrhythmia where there is no conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles, resulting in independent and dissociated atrial and ventricular rhythms.
There are no consistent P waves or PR intervals in complete heart block.
Choice D is wrong because premature atrial complexes are extra beats that originate from the atria and interrupt the normal sinus rhythm.
They produce abnormal P waves that are different from the sinus P waves, and may have a shorter or longer PR interval depending on the timing of the impulse.
However, they do not cause a constant prolongation of the PR interval.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Perform a sterile dressing change for a client who has an abdominal wound. This is because a licensed practical nurse (LPN) can perform tasks that require technical skills and have predictable outcomes, such as dressing changes. A sterile dressing change is also within the scope of practice of an LPN.
Choice A is wrong because complete discharge teaching for a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus requires assessment, evaluation and critical thinking, which are beyond the scope of practice of an LPN. Discharge teaching is the responsibility of a registered nurse (RN) who can provide education and counseling to clients and families.
Choice B is wrong because completing the Glasgow Coma Scale for a client who has an evolving stroke requires assessment and interpretation of neurological status, which are complex and unpredictable tasks that only an RN can perform. The Glasgow Coma Scale is a tool that measures the level of consciousness of a client based on eye opening, verbal response and motor response. A client who has an evolving stroke may have changes in their neurological status that require frequent monitoring and intervention by an RN.
Choice D is wrong because performing an admission assessment for a client who is scheduled for surgery requires comprehensive data collection, analysis and synthesis, which are advanced skills that only an RN can perform. An admission assessment involves obtaining a complete health history, performing a physical examination, identifying client needs and problems, and developing a plan of care.
A client who is scheduled for surgery may have complex and unpredictable needs that require specialized knowledge and judgment by an RN.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This indicates that the client is receiving the therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, which is to prevent seizures by reducing neuromuscular excitability.
Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that is given intravenously to women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure, and protein in the urine during pregnancy, to reduce the risk of seizures or eclampsia. It can also prolong pregnancy for up to two days, allowing drugs that speed up the baby’s lung development to be administered.
Choice B is wrong because 1+ proteinuria via urine dipstick is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of preeclampsia.
Proteinuria indicates that the kidneys are not working properly and are leaking protein into the urine. Magnesium sulfate does not improve the outcomes for the baby and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression for the mother.
Choice C is wrong because a pulse rate of 100/min is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a possible side effect.
Magnesium sulfate can cause vasodilation, which lowers blood pressure and increases heart rate. A normal pulse rate for an adult is between 60 and 100 beats per minute. A pulse rate higher than 100 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which can be caused by various factors such as anxiety, dehydration, fever, infection, or medication.
Choice D is wrong because urine output of 20 mL/hr is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of kidney failure. A normal urine output for an adult is between 800 and 2000 mL per day or about 30 to 80 mL per hour. A urine output lower than 30 mL per hour may indicate oliguria, which can be caused by various factors such as dehydration, blood loss, shock, or kidney damage. Magnesium sulfate can cause renal toxicity if given in high doses or for prolonged periods.
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