A nurse is caring for a client who is visibly agitated and talking loudly in a group therapy session. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Place the client in seclusion.
Assist the client with understanding their needs.
Ask the client to identify what made them upset.
Administer lorazepam IM.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Seclusion is a last resort, not first, per de-escalation principles. It risks escalating agitation or trauma without addressing the cause. Scientifically, verbal intervention precedes restraint, as identifying triggers can calm the client, aligning with evidence-based psychiatric care prioritizing least restrictive measures.
Choice B reason: Assisting with needs is vague and secondary to identifying the agitation’s source. Without understanding the trigger, this lacks focus. Scientifically, pinpointing the upset first guides effective support, making this a follow-up, not initial, step in managing acute behavioral distress.
Choice C reason: Asking what upset the client de-escalates by engaging them, identifying triggers for targeted intervention. This aligns with scientific psychiatric practice, reducing agitation through communication before medication or seclusion, addressing the root cause effectively as the first step in evidence-based care.
Choice D reason: Administering lorazepam IM is premature without de-escalation attempts. It risks over-sedation or side effects, bypassing verbal strategies. Scientifically, medication follows failed non-pharmacological efforts per guidelines, making this a later option, not the first, in managing agitation safely and effectively.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, lowers BP, causing orthostatic hypotension. Caution when standing prevents falls, showing grasp of this key side effect.
Choice B reason: Leafy greens affect warfarin, not metoprolol. No dietary restriction applies, so this reflects confusion about beta-blocker side effects.
Choice C reason: Weight gain, not loss, may occur with metoprolol from fluid retention. Expecting loss misinterprets its metabolic impact, indicating misunderstanding.
Choice D reason: Taste loss isn’t a metoprolol effect; it’s linked to other drugs. This shows incorrect attribution of side effects to the medication.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Detailed explanations suit older children, not toddlers with limited comprehension. Simple reassurance works better, making this less effective for exam preparation.
Choice B reason: Starting with immunizations increases fear and resistance in toddlers. Less invasive steps first build trust, so this heightens distress unnecessarily.
Choice C reason: Letting toddlers handle equipment reduces fear through familiarity. This age-appropriate tactic eases anxiety, preparing them effectively for a calm physical examination.
Choice D reason: Fully undressing upfront can distress toddlers, lowering cooperation. Gradual exposure during the exam maintains comfort, making this an unsuitable initial step.
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