A nurse is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and is undergoing a nonstress test (NST). The test is nonreactive. Which of the following interventions should the nurse suggest based on the findings?
Kleihauer-Betke test
Amnioinfusion
Administration of terbutaline
Contraction stress test
The Correct Answer is D
A. Kleihauer-Betke test. This test is used to detect fetal-maternal hemorrhage by identifying fetal red blood cells in maternal circulation. It is not related to a nonreactive NST, which indicates the need for further fetal well-being assessment rather than checking for fetal-maternal bleeding.
B. Amnioinfusion. This procedure involves infusing fluid into the amniotic sac to relieve umbilical cord compression or dilute meconium-stained amniotic fluid. It is not an appropriate intervention for a nonreactive NST, as it does not assess fetal oxygenation or reactivity.
C. Administration of terbutaline. Terbutaline is a tocolytic used to relax the uterus and prevent preterm labor. It is not indicated for a nonreactive NST, as the concern in this scenario is fetal well-being rather than uterine activity.
D. Contraction stress test. A nonreactive NST means that the fetal heart rate does not demonstrate adequate accelerations, which can indicate potential fetal hypoxia. A contraction stress test is performed next to evaluate how the fetal heart rate responds to contractions, helping determine if the fetus can tolerate labor.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"C"}
Explanation
Rationale for Correct Options:
Compartment syndrome is a serious complication that can occur after a fracture, particularly of a long bone like the femur. It results from increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to decreased blood flow and potential tissue damage.
Edema of the toes suggests swelling, which may indicate increasing pressure within the affected limb. The adolescent is already reporting significant pain (7/10) and has required repeated doses of IV morphine, which may not be sufficient to relieve compartment syndrome pain (a key warning sign). If left untreated, compartment syndrome can cause nerve and muscle damage, ischemia, and even permanent disability.
Rationale for Incorrect Options:
Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT): DVT is a risk with immobilization, but it usually presents with unilateral swelling, warmth, and pain in the affected limb, not just toe edema.
Fat Embolism Syndrome: This occurs due to fat globules entering circulation after a long bone fracture. Symptoms include respiratory distress, mental status changes, and petechiae, which are not present here.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Neck pain can occur in some patients following electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) due to muscle tension or positioning during the procedure. However, it is not a common or expected adverse reaction associated with ECT, so it is not the primary concern to address.
B. Temporary memory loss is a well-documented adverse reaction following ECT. Patients may experience difficulties with short-term memory, particularly related to events that occurred around the time of the treatment. This memory loss is usually temporary, but it can be distressing for some individuals.
C. Voice alteration is not typically associated with ECT. Although some patients may experience hoarseness or changes in vocal quality due to intubation or anesthesia, this is not a direct result of ECT itself and is not commonly mentioned in the context of ECT side effects.
D. Tingling of the scalp is not a recognized adverse reaction to ECT. Patients may experience various sensations, but tingling is not a common or documented response. The primary focus should be on more significant effects, such as temporary memory loss and potential confusion immediately following the treatment.
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