A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postpartum. The nurse notes that the client soaked a perineal pad in 10 minutes, the client's skin color is ashen, and she states she feels weak and lightheaded. After applying oxygen via nonrebreather face mask at 10 L/min, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
Administer oxytocin by continuous IV infusion.
Massage the client's fundus to promote contractions.
Tilt the client onto her right side with her legs elevated to at least 30 degrees.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason:
Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter can be helpful in measuring urine output and reducing bladder distention, which may impede uterine contractions. However, it is not the immediate next step in managing postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice B reason:
Administering oxytocin by continuous IV infusion is a standard intervention to promote uterine contractions after delivery, which helps to control bleeding. However, before starting an oxytocin infusion, it is important to ensure that there are no retained placental fragments and that the uterus is not already well-contracted.
Choice C reason:
Massaging the client's fundus is the priority action because it can stimulate uterine contractions, which are essential for controlling postpartum bleeding. A firm, contracted uterus helps to compress the blood vessels and prevent excessive bleeding.
Choice D reason:
Tilting the client onto her right side with her legs elevated can help improve venous return and may be part of the management for shock. However, the immediate concern in a postpartum client with excessive bleeding is to manage the bleeding by promoting uterine contractions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Tocolytic therapy is not indicated for a client with a post-term pregnancy. Tocolytics are medications used to suppress premature labor, and a pregnancy at 42 weeks is considered post-term, not preterm.
Choice B Reason:
Braxton-Hicks contractions are normal occurrences during pregnancy and do not indicate preterm labor. They are often referred to as "false labor" because they do not lead to cervical dilation or effacement. Therefore, tocolytic therapy is not necessary.
Choice C Reason:
Administering tocolytic therapy in the case of fetal death is not appropriate. Tocolytics are used to delay preterm labor to allow for fetal maturation or to prolong pregnancy to administer corticosteroids for fetal lung development, which is not applicable in this scenario.
Choice D Reason:
Tocolytic therapy is appropriate for a client experiencing preterm labor at 26 weeks of gestation. The goal of tocolytic therapy is to delay delivery to allow for the administration of corticosteroids to accelerate fetal lung maturity or to transfer the client to a facility equipped for premature infants.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. Uteroplacental insufficiency.
Choice A rationale:
Late decelerations on a fetal monitor strip are typically indicative of uteroplacental insufficiency. This condition occurs when the placenta is not delivering enough oxygen to the fetus, often due to issues like placental abruption, preeclampsia, or post-term pregnancy.
Choice B rationale:
Maternal bradycardia refers to a slow heart rate in the mother, which is not directly related to late decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Late decelerations are specific to fetal distress due to placental issues.
Choice C rationale:
Umbilical cord compression usually causes variable decelerations, not late decelerations. Variable decelerations are abrupt decreases in fetal heart rate that can occur at any time during a contraction.
Choice D rationale:
Fetal head compression typically results in early decelerations, which are gradual decreases in fetal heart rate that mirror the contractions. These are generally not concerning and are considered a normal response to labor.
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